50 Free LPIC-2 201-450 Practice Questions and Answers
50 questions for the LPIC-2 201-450 exam, each answer explained. Watch it here, try the questions yourself, or read the transcript.
Questions in this video
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Question 1 Play from 00:00
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Why A is wrong
Swap space can be located on any partition, not necessarily the root partition.
Right, B is the answer.
Why B is right
Extensive swap usage degrades system performance because swap space resides on the hard disk, which is much slower than RAM. When the kernel must frequently swap memory pages to and from disk, the system experiences increased I/O operations and context switching overhead, significantly reducing overall performance. Option A is wrong because swap can be on any partition; C is wrong because the kernel actively moves processes between RAM and swap; D references a non-existent memfrag tool; E is wrong because virtual addresses remain constant.
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Why C is wrong
The kernel continuously rebalances processes between RAM and swap based on demand.
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Why D is wrong
The 'memfrag' command does not exist; memory fragmentation is not a significant concern in modern virtual memory systems.
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Why E is wrong
Virtual memory addresses are maintained by the kernel and do not change during swapping.
Question 2 Play from 02:41
/home /etc/auto.home
What is the meaning of the /etc/auto.home file?
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
In autofs configuration, the /etc/auto.home file contains indirect maps that specify how to automatically mount filesystems under the /home mount point. These maps define the relationship between mount points and the remote resources to be mounted, allowing autofs to dynamically mount filesystems on demand without manual intervention.
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Why B is wrong
While remote filesystem details are needed, the primary purpose of auto.home is to define mount mappings, not store authentication credentials.
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Why C is wrong
The /etc/auto.home file defines mount mappings, not general settings for the /home mount point.
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Why D is wrong
SSL keys and authentication credentials are typically stored separately from autofs map files for security.
Question 3 Play from 04:37
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Right, A is one of the answers.
Why A is right
To properly monitor network link quality, both bandwidth in both directions and effective latency must be recorded. Bandwidth indicates the link's capacity and throughput capability, while latency measures the delay in data transmission, both of which are critical metrics for assessing link performance. The number of nodes, packet counts by protocol, and TCP port usage are operational metrics but not primary indicators of link quality itself.
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Why B is wrong
The number of nodes using the link does not directly measure the quality of the link itself.
Right, C is one of the answers.
Why C is right
To properly monitor network link quality, both bandwidth in both directions and effective latency must be recorded. Bandwidth indicates the link's capacity and throughput capability, while latency measures the delay in data transmission, both of which are critical metrics for assessing link performance. The number of nodes, packet counts by protocol, and TCP port usage are operational metrics but not primary indicators of link quality itself.
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Why D is wrong
Counting IPv4 and IPv6 packets is traffic monitoring, not a measure of link quality.
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Why E is wrong
The number of used TCP ports is an application-level metric, not a network link quality indicator.
Question 4 Play from 06:21
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
The source code for Linux kernel modules is included within the main Linux kernel source code distribution. When you download the Linux kernel source, it contains the module source files that can be compiled as needed. Modules are an integral part of the kernel source tree.
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Why B is wrong
Kernel modules are not downloaded on demand during compilation; they are part of the source tree.
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Why C is wrong
While some out-of-tree modules exist separately, the main kernel modules are distributed with the kernel source.
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Why D is wrong
Main kernel modules are not provided as a separate download; they are included in the kernel source tarball.
Question 5 Play from 08:04
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Why A is wrong
Mounting SCSI tape drives is handled by the mount command, not mt.
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Why B is wrong
Formatting tapes is not the function of mt; tape formatting is typically handled by vendor-specific tools.
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Why C is wrong
Writing data to tape drives is the function of dd or tar, not mt.
Right, D is the answer.
Why D is right
The 'mt' (magnetic tape) command is used to control magnetic tape drive operations, specifically positioning the tape to a specified location or block. It does not mount drives, format tapes, write data, or manage UUIDs, those are functions of other tools like mount, tar, dd, or system utilities.
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Why E is wrong
Managing UUIDs is not a tape drive operation; mt controls tape positioning and status.
Question 6 Play from 10:05
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
grub-install is the standard command used to install GRUB bootloader code into the master boot record (MBR) or EFI partition. It handles the installation of GRUB to the system's boot sector.
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Why B is wrong
grub-mkconfig generates configuration files but does not install the bootloader.
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Why C is wrong
grub-install-mbr is not a recognized GRUB command.
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Why D is wrong
grub-glue-mbr is not a standard GRUB utility.
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Why E is wrong
grub-mbr-setup is not a recognized GRUB command.
Question 7 Play from 11:33
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
The maxcpus=1 kernel boot parameter instructs the kernel to use only one CPU core at boot time, regardless of how many processors are available on the system. This is useful for troubleshooting and performance testing.
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Why B is wrong
usecpus is not a valid kernel boot parameter.
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Why C is wrong
smpcpus is not a valid kernel boot parameter.
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Why D is wrong
vcpumx is not a valid kernel boot parameter.
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Why E is wrong
vmxcpus is not a valid kernel boot parameter.
Question 8 Play from 13:03
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Right, A is one of the answers.
Why A is right
A. sar C. iostat sar (System Activity Reporter) and iostat (input/output statistics) are both standard Linux tools for collecting system performance and capacity planning data over time. sar collects CPU, memory, I/O, and network statistics, while iostat specifically monitors disk I/O performance. psstat is not a standard tool, hwtop is not a recognized capacity planning utility, and sysio is not a standard Linux tool.
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Why B is wrong
psstat is not a standard Linux capacity planning tool.
Right, C is one of the answers.
Why C is right
A. sar C. iostat sar (System Activity Reporter) and iostat (input/output statistics) are both standard Linux tools for collecting system performance and capacity planning data over time. sar collects CPU, memory, I/O, and network statistics, while iostat specifically monitors disk I/O performance. psstat is not a standard tool, hwtop is not a recognized capacity planning utility, and sysio is not a standard Linux tool.
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Why D is wrong
hwtop is not a recognized standard Linux utility for capacity planning data collection.
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Why E is wrong
sysio is not a standard Linux tool for collecting capacity planning data.
Question 9 Play from 14:37
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Why A is wrong
Login is not a valid node.startup value; it describes an action rather than a startup mode.
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Why B is wrong
Initiate is not a recognized node.startup parameter value.
Right, C is one of the answers.
Why C is right
C. manual E. automatic The node.startup parameter in iscsid.conf defines how iSCSI nodes behave at boot time. The value 'automatic' causes the node to automatically connect during startup, while 'manual' requires manual intervention to connect. These are the two standard startup behaviors for iSCSI nodes.
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Why D is wrong
Discover is related to iSCSI discovery operations, not the node.startup parameter.
Right, E is one of the answers.
Why E is right
C. manual E. automatic The node.startup parameter in iscsid.conf defines how iSCSI nodes behave at boot time. The value 'automatic' causes the node to automatically connect during startup, while 'manual' requires manual intervention to connect. These are the two standard startup behaviors for iSCSI nodes.
Question 10 Play from 16:05
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Why A is wrong
lvcclone is not a valid LVM command.
Right, B is the answer.
Why B is right
The lvcreate command is used to create logical volume snapshots when invoked with the -s or --snapshot option. This creates a point-in-time copy of a logical volume while allowing the original to continue being updated. Snapshots use copy-on-write technology to track changes efficiently.
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Why C is wrong
lvm2 is the package/suite name, not a command for creating snapshots.
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Why D is wrong
lvsnap is not a valid LVM command.
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Why E is wrong
lvsnapshot is not a valid LVM command; the correct command is lvcreate with snapshot options.
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Question 11 Play from 17:40
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Right, A is one of the answers.
Why A is right
Historical resource usage data is crucial for capacity planning and troubleshooting. Option A is correct because trends in resource consumption help predict when upgrades are needed. Option C is correct because historical data can show resource spikes and process terminations during out-of-memory events. Option D is correct because past usage patterns help diagnose current capacity bottlenecks. Option B (vendor selection) is not primarily driven by historical usage data on a current system. Option E (software troubleshooting) typically requires current system state and logs rather than historical resource trends.
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Why B is wrong
Vendor selection is based on hardware specifications and performance benchmarks, not historical resource usage data from an existing system.
Right, C is one of the answers.
Why C is right
Historical resource usage data is crucial for capacity planning and troubleshooting. Option A is correct because trends in resource consumption help predict when upgrades are needed. Option C is correct because historical data can show resource spikes and process terminations during out-of-memory events. Option D is correct because past usage patterns help diagnose current capacity bottlenecks. Option B (vendor selection) is not primarily driven by historical usage data on a current system. Option E (software troubleshooting) typically requires current system state and logs rather than historical resource trends.
Right, D is one of the answers.
Why D is right
Historical resource usage data is crucial for capacity planning and troubleshooting. Option A is correct because trends in resource consumption help predict when upgrades are needed. Option C is correct because historical data can show resource spikes and process terminations during out-of-memory events. Option D is correct because past usage patterns help diagnose current capacity bottlenecks. Option B (vendor selection) is not primarily driven by historical usage data on a current system. Option E (software troubleshooting) typically requires current system state and logs rather than historical resource trends.
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Why E is wrong
Software problem diagnosis relies on logs, error messages, and current behavior rather than historical resource usage patterns.
Question 12 Play from 19:45
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Why A is wrong
free only reports memory and swap usage summary, not paging or I/O statistics.
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Why B is wrong
memshow is not a standard Linux command.
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Why C is wrong
lsof lists open files and network connections, not memory or I/O statistics.
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Why D is wrong
pidof only identifies process IDs matching a name, not system performance data.
Right, E is the answer.
Why E is right
The `vmstat` command reports detailed information on memory usage, paging activity (page ins and page outs), and block input/output statistics. It provides a comprehensive view of virtual memory system performance including CPU activity, memory allocation, disk I/O, and system statistics. The `free` command shows only RAM and swap usage, `memshow` is not standard, `lsof` lists open files, and `pidof` finds process IDs.
Question 13 Play from 21:24
Which commands are used to restore the server to its usual target?
(Choose two.)
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Why A is wrong
telinit 0 is a legacy SysVinit command that would shut down the system, not restore normal operation.
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Why B is right
systemctl default restores the system to its default target (typically multi-user.target or graphical.target), which is the standard way to exit rescue.target. systemctl reboot cleanly reboots the system, bringing it back to its normal operating state. Both commands accomplish the goal of returning the system to normal operation after rescue mode maintenance.
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Why C is wrong
sync flushes disk buffers but does not change the system target or restore normal operation.
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Why D is wrong
systemctl emergency would move to an even more minimal state, not restore normal operation.
Right, E is one of the answers.
Why E is right
systemctl default restores the system to its default target (typically multi-user.target or graphical.target), which is the standard way to exit rescue.target. systemctl reboot cleanly reboots the system, bringing it back to its normal operating state. Both commands accomplish the goal of returning the system to normal operation after rescue mode maintenance.
Question 14 Play from 23:06
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Why A is wrong
Higher metric values indicate less preferred routes, not more preferred ones.
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Why B is wrong
MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) is unrelated to route selection and preference.
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Why C is wrong
TTL (Time To Live) is not used to determine route preference in the routing table.
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Why D is wrong
Higher TTL values are not used for route preference; routing decisions use metrics, not TTL.
Right, E is the answer.
Why E is right
When multiple default routes exist, the route with the lowest metric value is preferred. Metrics represent the cost of a route, where lower values indicate more preferred paths. The kernel uses metrics to determine which route to use when multiple paths to the same destination are available.
Question 15 Play from 24:53
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Why A is wrong
mdadm is a software RAID tool, not an LVM command; lvcreate should come after vgcreate.
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Why B is wrong
The order is reversed; vgcreate must come before lvcreate.
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Why C is wrong
lvmcreate is not a valid LVM command; the correct command is lvcreate.
Right, D is the answer.
Why D is right
The correct LVM workflow is: pvcreate (initialize physical volumes), vgcreate (create volume group from physical volumes), lvcreate (create logical volume from volume group), mkfs (format the logical volume), mount (mount the filesystem). The vgcreate command must precede lvcreate since logical volumes are created within volume groups.
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Why E is wrong
mdadm is a RAID tool, not part of the LVM workflow.
Question 16 Play from 26:48
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Why A is wrong
ext4 is a Linux filesystem that EFI firmware cannot read or execute boot files from.
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Why B is wrong
Btrfs is a Linux filesystem incompatible with EFI firmware requirements.
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Why C is wrong
XFS is a Linux filesystem not supported by EFI firmware specifications.
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Why D is wrong
CramFS is a compressed read-only filesystem unsuitable for the ESP which requires read/write access by firmware.
Right, E is the answer.
Why E is right
The EFI System Partition (ESP) must use FAT32 (or FAT12/FAT16) as its filesystem. This is an EFI specification requirement because EFI firmware implementations universally support FAT filesystems. Options A, B, and C (ext4, Btrfs, XFS) are Linux-native filesystems that EFI firmware cannot read. Option D (CramFS) is a compressed read-only filesystem not suitable for ESP which needs to be readable and writable by the firmware.
Question 17 Play from 28:47
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
systemd is the modern init system that includes systemd-boot (also called bootctl), a UEFI boot manager and bootloader integrated directly into the systemd project. This provides native UEFI boot functionality alongside the init system.
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Why B is wrong
SysVinit is a traditional init system that does not include its own bootloader.
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Why C is wrong
Upstart is an event-driven init system that does not provide a UEFI bootloader.
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Why D is wrong
OpenRC is a dependency-based init system that does not include a UEFI bootloader.
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Why E is wrong
launchd is macOS's init system and is not relevant to Linux UEFI booting.
Question 18 Play from 30:17
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Why A is wrong
These are makefile variables for compiler and linker flags, not targets.
Right, B is the answer.
Why B is right
In standard makefiles included with source packages, 'clean', 'install', and 'uninstall' are the typical phony targets that perform common build operations. CFLAGS, CPPFLAGS, LIBS, and LDFLAGS are variables, not targets. PATHS, DESTDIR, prefix, exec_prefix, bindir, and mandir are also variables used for configuration and installation paths, not build targets.
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Why C is wrong
These are installation path variables, not build targets.
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Why D is wrong
These are configuration variables for installation directories, not build targets.
Question 19 Play from 32:03
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Why A is wrong
While systemd-mount can use mount units, the primary purpose of mount units is to integrate fstab entries into systemd, not to provide user-choice mounting mechanisms.
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Why B is wrong
Mount units are not restricted to network filesystems; they handle both local and remote filesystems equally.
Right, C is the answer.
Why C is right
A system mount unit is a systemd unit file (.mount) that is generated by systemd-fstab- generator to convert traditional /etc/fstab entries into systemd mount units. This integration allows fstab entries to be managed within the systemd boot and service management framework, enabling dependency tracking and parallel mounting.
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Why D is wrong
The mount command does not use system or systemd mount units; mount units are part of systemd's native management system.
Question 20 Play from 34:16
Which of the following commands can be used on the client to enable it to use the router as its default gateway? (Choose two.)
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Right, A is one of the answers.
Why A is right
Both commands correctly add a default gateway. Option A uses the route command with the syntax 'route add default gw 192.168.0.1 eth0', which is the classic method. Option C uses the modern ip command with 'ip route add default via 192.168.0.1', which is the preferred approach in modern Linux systems.
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Why B is wrong
ifconfig does not support a defaultroute parameter; this syntax is invalid.
Right, C is one of the answers.
Why C is right
Both commands correctly add a default gateway. Option A uses the route command with the syntax 'route add default gw 192.168.0.1 eth0', which is the classic method. Option C uses the modern ip command with 'ip route add default via 192.168.0.1', which is the preferred approach in modern Linux systems.
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Why D is wrong
The /etc/resolv.conf file is for DNS configuration, not routing or default gateway settings.
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Why E is wrong
The route command does not use the syntax 'defaultgw=192.168.0.1 if=eth0'; this is incorrect syntax.
Question 21 Play from 36:44
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Why A is wrong
Syslogd does not automatically detect and reload configuration file changes; manual intervention is required.
Right, B is one of the answers.
Why B is right
After updating the syslogd configuration file, the changes can be applied by sending the HUP (hangup) signal to the syslogd process, which causes it to reload its configuration without stopping (option B), or by restarting the syslogd service entirely (option C). Both methods ensure the daemon reads the updated configuration file.
Right, C is one of the answers.
Why C is right
After updating the syslogd configuration file, the changes can be applied by sending the HUP (hangup) signal to the syslogd process, which causes it to reload its configuration without stopping (option B), or by restarting the syslogd service entirely (option C). Both methods ensure the daemon reads the updated configuration file.
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Why D is wrong
The syslogd -u command is not a standard method for reloading syslogd configuration; this flag does not trigger configuration reloading.
Question 22 Play from 38:29
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
RAID level 1 creates a mirrored array where data is duplicated across multiple devices for redundancy. This is the standard RAID level used in Linux software RAID (mdadm) when mirroring is required. The value is specified with the -l or --level flag when creating the array.
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Why B is wrong
RAID 5 uses striping with parity, not mirroring.
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Why C is wrong
RAID 6 uses dual parity striping, not mirroring.
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Why D is wrong
Container is not a RAID level; it's a metadata format.
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Why E is wrong
Mirrorstripe is not a valid RAID level designation.
Question 23 Play from 39:53
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
The udevadm monitor command listens to kernel events (uevent) and udev events produced by udev rules, printing detailed information about device additions, removals, and changes to the console. It is used for debugging and monitoring device activity.
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Why B is wrong
While udevadm monitor shows device events, it does not directly monitor the /dev/ directory but rather listens to kernel events.
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Why C is wrong
udevadm monitor does not print performance statistics; it prints event information.
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Why D is wrong
udevadm monitor does not communicate with D-Bus directly; it listens to kernel and udev events.
Question 24 Play from 41:40
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
The `top` command displays processes sorted by CPU usage by default, showing the most CPU-intensive processes at the top of the list. It provides real-time monitoring of process activity including PIDs and their resource consumption. The `uptime` command only shows load averages, `ps aux` lists processes but doesn't sort by CPU by default, `vmstat` reports virtual memory statistics, and `freemem` is not a standard Linux command.
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Why B is wrong
uptime only displays load averages and system uptime, not process PIDs or CPU usage.
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Why C is wrong
ps aux lists all processes but does not sort by CPU usage by default.
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Why D is wrong
vmstat reports virtual memory statistics, not individual process CPU usage.
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Why E is wrong
freemem is not a standard Linux command for monitoring process CPU usage.
Question 25 Play from 43:26
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Why A is wrong
smartd does not monitor CPU; CPU monitoring uses different tools like lm_sensors or performance monitoring daemons.
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Why B is wrong
smartd does not monitor RAM; memory monitoring requires separate tools and mechanisms.
Right, C is the answer.
Why C is right
smartd is the SMART (Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology) daemon that monitors the health and status of hard drives and SSDs. It checks SMART attributes from storage devices to predict and detect potential failures before they occur.
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Why D is wrong
smartd does not monitor network traffic; network monitoring uses tools like netstat, iftop, or packet sniffers.
Question 26 Play from 44:55
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Why A is wrong
lsdev is not a standard Linux command for displaying hardware information
Right, B is one of the answers.
Why B is right
B. lsusb C. lspci D. lsmem lsusb displays USB device information, lspci shows PCI device details, and lsmem provides memory information. These are standard Linux commands for querying hardware. lsdev is not a standard command on modern Linux systems, and lskvm is not a recognized hardware information utility.
Right, C is one of the answers.
Why C is right
B. lsusb C. lspci D. lsmem lsusb displays USB device information, lspci shows PCI device details, and lsmem provides memory information. These are standard Linux commands for querying hardware. lsdev is not a standard command on modern Linux systems, and lskvm is not a recognized hardware information utility.
Right, D is one of the answers.
Why D is right
B. lsusb C. lspci D. lsmem lsusb displays USB device information, lspci shows PCI device details, and lsmem provides memory information. These are standard Linux commands for querying hardware. lsdev is not a standard command on modern Linux systems, and lskvm is not a recognized hardware information utility.
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Why E is wrong
lskvm is not a recognized command for displaying hardware details
Question 27 Play from 46:25
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
Nmap is the standard tool for network scanning and discovering active IP addresses on a specified network. It can perform ping sweeps and port scans to identify hosts that are in use, making it ideal for network reconnaissance and host discovery tasks.
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Why B is wrong
Tcpdump is a packet capture tool for analyzing network traffic, not for actively scanning and discovering hosts on a network.
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Why C is wrong
The ip command is used for local network configuration and display, not for scanning remote networks.
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Why D is wrong
Netscan is not a standard Linux command; this tool does not exist in typical Linux distributions.
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Why E is wrong
Hostdiscover is not a standard Linux utility; this command does not exist in typical Linux distributions.
Question 28 Play from 48:02
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Why A is wrong
The zip command does exist on Linux systems, so this is not the reason to avoid it
Right, B is the answer.
Why B is right
The zip format does not preserve Unix/Linux file ownership, permissions, and other metadata critical to Linux filesystem integrity. When a zip archive is extracted, files may not retain their original owner, group, and permission settings, making zip unsuitable for complete Linux system backups.
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Why C is wrong
zip can compress directory structures recursively, so this limitation does not apply
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Why D is wrong
zip does not have a 1 GiB file size limitation; it can handle files larger than 4 GiB with zip64 extensions
Question 29 Play from 49:46
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Why A is wrong
While iwlist is correct, the syntax 'iwlist scan wlan0' places arguments in the wrong order; iwlist requires the interface before the subcommand.
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Why B is wrong
The iw scan wlan0 syntax is incorrect; iw requires the 'dev' keyword before the interface name.
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Why C is wrong
The iw list wlan0 command displays capabilities and features, not visible wireless networks.
Right, D is the answer.
Why D is right
The iwlist wlan0 scan command is the correct syntax for scanning visible wireless networks on the wlan0 interface. The iwlist utility is used for wireless configuration and information retrieval, and 'scan' is the proper subcommand that lists all visible wireless networks with their details.
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Why E is wrong
The iw dev wlan0 list command is not valid syntax; the correct scanning command uses 'scan' not 'list'.
Question 30 Play from 51:47
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Why A is wrong
LUKS supports 8 slots, not 4.
Right, B is the answer.
Why B is right
LUKS (Linux Unified Key Setup) supports up to 8 different password slots simultaneously. Each slot can contain a different password or key, allowing multiple users or passphrases to unlock the same encrypted partition independently. This design provides flexibility for key management and recovery options.
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Why C is wrong
LUKS supports 8 slots, not 16.
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Why D is wrong
LUKS supports 8 slots, not 32.
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Why E is wrong
LUKS supports 8 slots, not 64.
Question 31 Play from 53:08
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Right, A is one of the answers.
Why A is right
A. ext4 D. XFS E. Btrfs ext4, XFS, and Btrfs are all modern, journaling filesystems suitable for root partitions in Linux systems. ext4 is the most commonly used default, XFS is a high-performance filesystem used in enterprise environments, and Btrfs is a next-generation filesystem with advanced features. VFAT and NTFS are unsuitable for root partitions as they lack essential Linux features like proper permissions, ownership, and journaling.
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Why B is wrong
VFAT lacks support for Linux file permissions, ownership, and symlinks, making it unsuitable for a root filesystem.
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Why C is wrong
NTFS is a Windows filesystem that does not properly support Linux file permissions and attributes required for a root partition.
Right, D is one of the answers.
Why D is right
A. ext4 D. XFS E. Btrfs ext4, XFS, and Btrfs are all modern, journaling filesystems suitable for root partitions in Linux systems. ext4 is the most commonly used default, XFS is a high-performance filesystem used in enterprise environments, and Btrfs is a next-generation filesystem with advanced features. VFAT and NTFS are unsuitable for root partitions as they lack essential Linux features like proper permissions, ownership, and journaling.
Right, E is one of the answers.
Why E is right
A. ext4 D. XFS E. Btrfs ext4, XFS, and Btrfs are all modern, journaling filesystems suitable for root partitions in Linux systems. ext4 is the most commonly used default, XFS is a high-performance filesystem used in enterprise environments, and Btrfs is a next-generation filesystem with advanced features. VFAT and NTFS are unsuitable for root partitions as they lack essential Linux features like proper permissions, ownership, and journaling.
Question 32 Play from 54:55
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Why A is wrong
The bootloader does not copy the kernel to the MBR; it loads the kernel from the filesystem.
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Why B is wrong
The initramfs cannot function without a kernel to run; it is loaded by the kernel, not independently.
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Why C is wrong
The bootloader cannot mount the root filesystem or launch a shell without a kernel being executed.
Right, D is the answer.
Why D is right
If the kernel file is deleted, the system cannot boot at all. The bootloader can load the kernel into memory and transfer control to it, but if the kernel file does not exist, the bootloader will fail and display an error. No automatic recovery mechanisms exist to reinstall a missing kernel.
Question 33 Play from 56:58
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Why A is wrong
There is no standard 'recover' directory for fsck output.
Right, B is the answer.
Why B is right
The fsck utility places unreferenced files and file fragments in the lost+found directory at the root of the filesystem. This directory is created automatically during filesystem creation and serves as a recovery location for files that become orphaned due to filesystem corruption or unexpected system shutdown.
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Why C is wrong
There is no standard 'back' directory for fsck output.
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Why D is wrong
There is no standard 'lost' directory; the correct directory is 'lost+found'.
Question 34 Play from 58:18
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Why A is wrong
One disk provides no redundancy and is not a valid RAID configuration.
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Why B is wrong
Two disks cannot provide the striping and parity protection that RAID 5 requires.
Right, C is the answer.
Why C is right
RAID 5 requires a minimum of 3 disks to function. It stripes data across disks and uses distributed parity to provide redundancy. With 3 disks, one disk worth of capacity is used for parity information, allowing recovery from a single disk failure.
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Why D is wrong
While 4 disks is a valid RAID 5 configuration, the minimum requirement is 3 disks.
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Why E is wrong
Five disks is a valid configuration but exceeds the minimum requirement.
Question 35 Play from 59:50
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Why A is wrong
level is not a systemd unit type.
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Why B is wrong
destination is not a systemd unit type.
Right, C is the answer.
Why C is right
In systemd, target units provide functionality equivalent to SysV init runlevels. Targets are special unit files that group other units and represent system states (such as multi- user.target or rescue.target, analogous to runlevels 3 and 1 in SysV). Options A (level), B (destination), and D (mode) are not systemd unit types. Option E (service) is a unit type but represents individual services, not system run states.
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Why D is wrong
mode is not a systemd unit type.
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Why E is wrong
service units represent individual services, not system run states comparable to runlevels.
Question 36 Play from 1:01:26
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Why A is wrong
acpid is a daemon for handling ACPI events, not for process listing or capacity planning.
Right, B is one of the answers.
Why B is right
B. lsof C. pstree lsof (list open files) and pstree (process tree) are tools that assist in identifying and listing processes of interest for capacity planning. lsof shows which processes have which files open, and pstree displays the process hierarchy. acpid is for ACPI events, telinit controls runlevels, and lsproc is not a standard Linux tool.
Right, C is one of the answers.
Why C is right
B. lsof C. pstree lsof (list open files) and pstree (process tree) are tools that assist in identifying and listing processes of interest for capacity planning. lsof shows which processes have which files open, and pstree displays the process hierarchy. acpid is for ACPI events, telinit controls runlevels, and lsproc is not a standard Linux tool.
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Why D is wrong
telinit changes system runlevels; it does not identify processes for capacity planning.
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Why E is wrong
lsproc is not a standard Linux utility for process identification.
Question 37 Play from 1:03:00
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
The `sa1` command is the data collection script for `sar` that should be run periodically from cron to gather performance data over time. It collects system activity information and stores it in binary format for later analysis with `sar`. The other options are either non- existent or serve different purposes: `sarmon` and `sarcron` are not standard tools, `sadf` converts sar data to different formats, and `sarec` is not a recognized command.
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Why B is wrong
sarmon is not a standard system activity reporting command.
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Why C is wrong
sarec is not a recognized sar-related command.
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Why D is wrong
sadf converts existing sar data to different formats but does not collect data periodically.
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Why E is wrong
sarcron is not a standard Linux command for sar data collection.
Question 38 Play from 1:04:41
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Right, A is one of the answers.
Why A is right
To use a recursive nameserver at 192.168.0.1, two steps are needed. First, add the nameserver to /etc/resolv.conf using 'nameserver 192.168.0.1', which tells the resolver where to send queries. Second, ensure /etc/nsswitch.conf includes 'dns' in the hosts entry so that DNS is consulted for hostname resolution.
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Why B is wrong
The route command is for managing routing tables, not DNS nameserver configuration.
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Why C is wrong
ifconfig is used for interface configuration and does not support nameserver parameters.
Right, D is one of the answers.
Why D is right
To use a recursive nameserver at 192.168.0.1, two steps are needed. First, add the nameserver to /etc/resolv.conf using 'nameserver 192.168.0.1', which tells the resolver where to send queries. Second, ensure /etc/nsswitch.conf includes 'dns' in the hosts entry so that DNS is consulted for hostname resolution.
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Why E is wrong
bind is a DNS server package; 'bind add nameserver' is not a valid command for configuring the resolver.
Question 39 Play from 1:07:02
Which of following tools provides capabilities to regularly query these web pages and generate an alert in case one or more application servers are in a failed state? (Choose two.)
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Why A is wrong
MRTG is a network traffic monitoring and graphing tool, not a service status monitoring tool.
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Why B is wrong
Cacti is designed for performance metric visualization and graphing, not for status monitoring and alerting.
Right, C is one of the answers.
Why C is right
C. Nagios D. Icinga 2 Nagios and Icinga 2 are enterprise monitoring solutions specifically designed to regularly check services (including custom HTTP endpoints) and generate alerts based on status changes. Both tools can query custom web pages and trigger alerts when they return FAILURE responses. MRTG is for traffic graphing, Cacti is for performance graphing (not alerting on status), and collectd is for metrics collection without built-in alerting.
Right, D is one of the answers.
Why D is right
C. Nagios D. Icinga 2 Nagios and Icinga 2 are enterprise monitoring solutions specifically designed to regularly check services (including custom HTTP endpoints) and generate alerts based on status changes. Both tools can query custom web pages and trigger alerts when they return FAILURE responses. MRTG is for traffic graphing, Cacti is for performance graphing (not alerting on status), and collectd is for metrics collection without built-in alerting.
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Why E is wrong
collectd is a metrics collection daemon that lacks the alerting capabilities needed for this scenario.
Question 40 Play from 1:09:05
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
PXE (Preboot eXecution Environment) is a standardized client-server interface that allows computers to boot over the network using their network interface card (NIC) before the operating system is loaded. This is its primary and defining function. Option B describes X11 remote desktop, which is unrelated to PXE. Options C and D describe system configuration verification, which occurs after booting is complete, not as a function of PXE itself.
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Why B is wrong
X11 desktop launching is a graphical remote access feature, not related to PXE's network boot functionality.
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Why C is wrong
Configuration verification after boot is a post-boot activity and not a PXE function.
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Why D is wrong
While configuration might be verified before boot completion, this is not the primary functionality PXE provides.
Question 41 Play from 1:11:03
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Right, A is one of the answers.
Why A is right
A. SYSLINUX C. PXELINUX D. ISOLINUX SYSLINUX, PXELINUX, and ISOLINUX are all legitimate alternative Linux boot loaders. SYSLINUX (option A) is used for booting from removable media and local filesystems. PXELINUX (option C) is a variant for PXE network booting. ISOLINUX (option D) is specifically designed for booting from CD/DVD ISO images. Option B, NTLINUX, is not a recognized Linux boot loader. Option E, UEFILINUX, is not a standard boot loader name; UEFI systems typically use GRUB2 or other established loaders.
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Why B is wrong
NTLINUX is not a real or recognized Linux boot loader.
Right, C is one of the answers.
Why C is right
A. SYSLINUX C. PXELINUX D. ISOLINUX SYSLINUX, PXELINUX, and ISOLINUX are all legitimate alternative Linux boot loaders. SYSLINUX (option A) is used for booting from removable media and local filesystems. PXELINUX (option C) is a variant for PXE network booting. ISOLINUX (option D) is specifically designed for booting from CD/DVD ISO images. Option B, NTLINUX, is not a recognized Linux boot loader. Option E, UEFILINUX, is not a standard boot loader name; UEFI systems typically use GRUB2 or other established loaders.
Right, D is one of the answers.
Why D is right
A. SYSLINUX C. PXELINUX D. ISOLINUX SYSLINUX, PXELINUX, and ISOLINUX are all legitimate alternative Linux boot loaders. SYSLINUX (option A) is used for booting from removable media and local filesystems. PXELINUX (option C) is a variant for PXE network booting. ISOLINUX (option D) is specifically designed for booting from CD/DVD ISO images. Option B, NTLINUX, is not a recognized Linux boot loader. Option E, UEFILINUX, is not a standard boot loader name; UEFI systems typically use GRUB2 or other established loaders.
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Why E is wrong
UEFILINUX is not a standard Linux boot loader; UEFI boot typically uses GRUB2 or other established loaders.
Question 42 Play from 1:12:43
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Why A is wrong
initrd specifies the initial ramdisk file but does not begin a boot menu entry definition.
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Why B is wrong
linux specifies the kernel to boot but is not the command that starts a new menu entry definition.
Right, C is the answer.
Why C is right
In GRUB2 configuration files, the menuentry command is used to define a new boot menu entry with its settings and parameters. This command marks the beginning of a menu choice definition, including options like which kernel to boot and what parameters to pass (such as runlevel specifications). Option A (initrd) specifies the initial ramdisk but doesn't start a menu entry definition. Option B (linux) specifies the kernel but is not the command that begins a boot option definition. Option D (runlevel) is not a valid GRUB2 command.
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Why D is wrong
runlevel is not a recognized GRUB2 configuration command; runlevel specification would be passed as a kernel parameter.
Question 43 Play from 1:14:36
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Right, A is the answer.
Why A is right
The 'arp' command displays the Address Resolution Protocol table, which lists IPv4 addresses and their corresponding MAC addresses for nodes seen on directly connected networks. This command shows the ARP cache containing IP-to-MAC address mappings.
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Why B is wrong
ifconfig displays local network interface configuration but does not show ARP table entries for remote nodes.
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Why C is wrong
ipadm is a Solaris/illumos command for IP administration and is not commonly used on Linux systems for ARP queries.
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Why D is wrong
iwlist is used for wireless interface scanning and information, not for displaying ARP tables or MAC addresses.
Question 44 Play from 1:16:09
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Why A is wrong
FTP is a specific file transfer protocol client, not a general tool for scripting arbitrary TCP/UDP service interactions.
Right, B is the answer.
Why B is right
Netcat (nc) is designed for reading from and writing to network connections using TCP or UDP protocols. It can be used to script interactions with various services by establishing connections, sending data, and receiving responses, making it ideal for testing, debugging, and scripting network services.
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Why C is wrong
Tcpdump is a packet capture utility for analyzing network traffic, not for initiating or scripting service interactions.
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Why D is wrong
Strings is a utility for extracting printable strings from binary files, not for network service interactions.
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Why E is wrong
Wget is a file download utility specific to HTTP/HTTPS, not a general tool for scripting arbitrary TCP/UDP services.
Question 45 Play from 1:17:53
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Why A is wrong
OSI 9660 does not exist; the correct designation is ISO 9660.
Right, B is the answer.
Why B is right
ISO 9660 is the international standard filesystem format for CD-ROMs, defining how files and directories are organized on optical media. It was developed by the International Organization for Standardization and is universally recognized as the CD-ROM filesystem standard.
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Why C is wrong
SROFS is not a recognized CD-ROM filesystem standard.
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Why D is wrong
ISO 8859 is a character encoding standard, not a filesystem standard.
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Why E is wrong
ROM-EO is not a recognized filesystem standard for CD-ROMs.
Question 46 Play from 1:19:40
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Why A is wrong
pidstat reports per-process statistics, not remote filesystem connection data.
Right, B is one of the answers.
Why B is right
The `nfsiostat` command provides I/O statistics for NFS (Network File System) mounts, and `cifsiostat` provides I/O statistics for CIFS/SMB (Common Internet File System) mounts. These tools are specifically designed to collect data about remote filesystem connections and their performance. `pidstat` monitors individual process statistics, `sadf` converts sar data formats, and `fsiostat` is not a standard command.
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Why C is wrong
sadf converts existing sar data but does not specifically collect remote filesystem statistics.
Right, D is one of the answers.
Why D is right
The `nfsiostat` command provides I/O statistics for NFS (Network File System) mounts, and `cifsiostat` provides I/O statistics for CIFS/SMB (Common Internet File System) mounts. These tools are specifically designed to collect data about remote filesystem connections and their performance. `pidstat` monitors individual process statistics, `sadf` converts sar data formats, and `fsiostat` is not a standard command.
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Why E is wrong
fsiostat is not a standard Linux command for remote filesystem monitoring.
Question 47 Play from 1:21:22
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Why A is wrong
lsdevs is not a standard Linux command for displaying partition information.
Right, B is the answer.
Why B is right
The blkid command is the standard Linux utility for displaying block device attributes including UUID, labels, and filesystem types for all partitions and volumes on a system. It reads device metadata and provides comprehensive information needed for system administration and configuration.
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Why C is wrong
lsmount is not a standard command; mount or findmnt would be used to show mounted filesystems.
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Why D is wrong
blkls is part of the Sleuth Kit for forensics, not for displaying standard partition metadata.
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Why E is wrong
blkinfo is not a standard Linux command for displaying partition information.
Question 48 Play from 1:23:03
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Why A is wrong
Beta describes pre-release development versions, not completed 3.x or 4.x kernels
Right, B is one of the answers.
Why B is right
B. longterm E. stable Linux kernel 3.x and 4.x releases are classified as either 'longterm' (LTS versions with extended support) or 'stable' (standard releases). These terms describe the maintenance category and support duration of kernel versions. Beta, prerelease, and releasecandidate refer to pre-release stages that precede stable versions.
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Why C is wrong
Prerelease is not the terminology used for 3.x and 4.x kernel classification
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Why D is wrong
Releasecandidate refers to versions being tested before release, not released kernels
Right, E is one of the answers.
Why E is right
B. longterm E. stable Linux kernel 3.x and 4.x releases are classified as either 'longterm' (LTS versions with extended support) or 'stable' (standard releases). These terms describe the maintenance category and support duration of kernel versions. Beta, prerelease, and releasecandidate refer to pre-release stages that precede stable versions.
Question 49 Play from 1:24:38
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Right, A is one of the answers.
Why A is right
A. gzip E. bzip2 gzip and bzip2 are the two standard compression formats used for initramfs images on Linux systems. Both are widely supported and commonly used by bootloaders and kernel initialization code to reduce the size of the initial ramdisk.
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Why B is wrong
arc is not a recognized or standard compression format for initramfs images
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Why C is wrong
rar is a proprietary compression format not used for Linux initramfs creation
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Why D is wrong
cpio is an archive format used within initramfs, not a compression format itself
Right, E is one of the answers.
Why E is right
A. gzip E. bzip2 gzip and bzip2 are the two standard compression formats used for initramfs images on Linux systems. Both are widely supported and commonly used by bootloaders and kernel initialization code to reduce the size of the initial ramdisk.
Question 50 Play from 1:26:04
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Right, A is one of the answers.
Why A is right
The hostname command can display the local node's hostname including domain name (option A), set a new hostname for the system (option B), and display all IP addresses associated with the local node when used with appropriate flags like 'hostname -I' (option C). These three capabilities cover the primary hostname management functions available through this command.
Right, B is one of the answers.
Why B is right
The hostname command can display the local node's hostname including domain name (option A), set a new hostname for the system (option B), and display all IP addresses associated with the local node when used with appropriate flags like 'hostname -I' (option C). These three capabilities cover the primary hostname management functions available through this command.
Right, C is one of the answers.
Why C is right
The hostname command can display the local node's hostname including domain name (option A), set a new hostname for the system (option B), and display all IP addresses associated with the local node when used with appropriate flags like 'hostname -I' (option C). These three capabilities cover the primary hostname management functions available through this command.
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Why D is wrong
The hostname command does not display MAC addresses; MAC address information requires tools like ifconfig, ip, or arp.
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Why E is wrong
The hostname command does not maintain or display a history of previously-set hostnames; it only shows and sets the current hostname.
Transcript
Play from 00:00 Question 1. Which of the following is a side effect of extensive usage of swap space? Here are the options. Option A. The root filesystem may become full because swap space is always located on the system's root partition. Option B. The overall system performance may degrade because of heavy hard disk use and memory reorganization. Option C. Since processes always exist completely in either RAM or swap, regular RAM may become unused if the kernel does not move processes back from the swap space to memory. Option D. The memory may become fragmented and slow down the access to memory pages. However, this can be kept to a minimum by the regular use of memfrag -d. Option E. Applications need to restart because their virtual memory addresses change to reflect memory relocation to the swap address area. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is B. The overall system performance may degrade because of heavy hard disk use and memory reorganization. Extensive swap usage degrades system performance because swap space resides on the hard disk, which is much slower than RAM. When the kernel must frequently swap memory pages to and from disk, the system experiences increased I/O operations and context switching overhead, significantly reducing overall performance. Option A is wrong because swap can be on any partition; C is wrong because the kernel actively moves processes between RAM and swap; D references a non-existent memfrag tool; E is wrong because virtual addresses remain constant. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. Swap space can be located on any partition, not necessarily the root partition. Option C is incorrect. The kernel continuously rebalances processes between RAM and swap based on demand. Option D is incorrect. The 'memfrag' command does not exist; memory fragmentation is not a significant concern in modern virtual memory systems. Option E is incorrect. Virtual memory addresses are maintained by the kernel and do not change during swapping. Therefore, B, The overall system performance may degrade because of heavy hard disk use and memory reorganization, is the correct answer.
Play from 02:41 Question 2. The main configuration file for autofs has this entry: /home /etc/auto.home What is the meaning of the /etc/auto.home file? Here are the options. Option A. It has the indirect maps for the mounting of file systems. Option B. It has configuration information, such as passwords and keys, for the remote file server. Option C. It has configuration information on settings for the /home mount point. Option D. It is the holds the SSL key to allow authentication to the remote file server. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. It has the indirect maps for the mounting of file systems. In autofs configuration, the /etc/auto.home file contains indirect maps that specify how to automatically mount filesystems under the /home mount point. These maps define the relationship between mount points and the remote resources to be mounted, allowing autofs to dynamically mount filesystems on demand without manual intervention. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. While remote filesystem details are needed, the primary purpose of auto.home is to define mount mappings, not store authentication credentials. Option C is incorrect. The /etc/auto.home file defines mount mappings, not general settings for the /home mount point. Option D is incorrect. SSL keys and authentication credentials are typically stored separately from autofs map files for security. Therefore, A, It has the indirect maps for the mounting of file systems, is the correct answer.
Play from 04:37 Question 3. Which of the following properties should be recorded in order to monitor the quality of a network link? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. Bandwidth in both directions. Option B. Number of nodes using the link. Option C. Effective Latency. Option D. Number of IPv4 and IPv6 packets. Option E. Number of used TCP ports. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are A. Bandwidth in both directions, and C. Effective Latency. To properly monitor network link quality, both bandwidth in both directions and effective latency must be recorded. Bandwidth indicates the link's capacity and throughput capability, while latency measures the delay in data transmission, both of which are critical metrics for assessing link performance. The number of nodes, packet counts by protocol, and TCP port usage are operational metrics but not primary indicators of link quality itself. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. The number of nodes using the link does not directly measure the quality of the link itself. Option D is incorrect. Counting IPv4 and IPv6 packets is traffic monitoring, not a measure of link quality. Option E is incorrect. The number of used TCP ports is an application-level metric, not a network link quality indicator. Therefore, A and C are the correct answers.
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Play from 06:21 Question 4. How is the source code for the main Linux kernel modules distributed? Here are the options. Option A. It is included with the Linux kernel source code. Option B. The kernel modules are downloaded on demand as they are used during compilation. Option C. The kernel modules have their own release cycle and can be maintained separately from the Linux kernel source. Option D. It is provided as a separate download alongside the Linux kernel source code for the same version. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. It is included with the Linux kernel source code. The source code for Linux kernel modules is included within the main Linux kernel source code distribution. When you download the Linux kernel source, it contains the module source files that can be compiled as needed. Modules are an integral part of the kernel source tree. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. Kernel modules are not downloaded on demand during compilation; they are part of the source tree. Option C is incorrect. While some out-of-tree modules exist separately, the main kernel modules are distributed with the kernel source. Option D is incorrect. Main kernel modules are not provided as a separate download; they are included in the kernel source tarball. Therefore, A, It is included with the Linux kernel source code, is the correct answer.
Play from 08:04 Question 5. What is the command mt used for? Here are the options. Option A. It is used to mount SCSI tape drives. Option B. It formats SCSI tapes to be used with tar. Option C. It is a replacement for dd to write data to SCSI tape drives. Option D. It positions a SCSI tape to a specified position. Option E. It marks an SCSI tape with a unique identifier (UUID). Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is D. It positions a SCSI tape to a specified position. The 'mt' (magnetic tape) command is used to control magnetic tape drive operations, specifically positioning the tape to a specified location or block. It does not mount drives, format tapes, write data, or manage UUIDs, those are functions of other tools like mount, tar, dd, or system utilities. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. Mounting SCSI tape drives is handled by the mount command, not mt. Option B is incorrect. Formatting tapes is not the function of mt; tape formatting is typically handled by vendor-specific tools. Option C is incorrect. Writing data to tape drives is the function of dd or tar, not mt. Option E is incorrect. Managing UUIDs is not a tape drive operation; mt controls tape positioning and status. Therefore, D, It positions a SCSI tape to a specified position, is the correct answer.
Play from 10:05 Question 6. Which command is used to install a GRUB boot loader into the master boot record? Here are the options. Option A. grub-install. Option B. grub-mkconfig. Option C. grub-install-mbr. Option D. grub-glue-mbr. Option E. grub-mbr-setup. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. grub-install. grub-install is the standard command used to install GRUB bootloader code into the master boot record (MBR) or EFI partition. It handles the installation of GRUB to the system's boot sector. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. grub-mkconfig generates configuration files but does not install the bootloader. Option C is incorrect. grub-install-mbr is not a recognized GRUB command. Option D is incorrect. grub-glue-mbr is not a standard GRUB utility. Option E is incorrect. grub-mbr-setup is not a recognized GRUB command. Therefore, A, grub-install, is the correct answer.
Play from 11:33 Question 7. Which of the following parameters instructs the kernel at boot time to use only one of the available processors? Here are the options. Option A. maxcpus=1. Option B. usecpus=1. Option C. smpcpus=1. Option D. vcpumx=1. Option E. vmxcpus=1. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. maxcpus=1. The maxcpus=1 kernel boot parameter instructs the kernel to use only one CPU core at boot time, regardless of how many processors are available on the system. This is useful for troubleshooting and performance testing. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. usecpus is not a valid kernel boot parameter. Option C is incorrect. smpcpus is not a valid kernel boot parameter. Option D is incorrect. vcpumx is not a valid kernel boot parameter. Option E is incorrect. vmxcpus is not a valid kernel boot parameter. Therefore, A, maxcpus=1, is the correct answer.
Play from 13:03 Question 8. Which of the following tools can be used to collect capacity planning data? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. sar. Option B. psstat. Option C. iostat. Option D. hwtop. Option E. sysio. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are A. sar, and C. iostat. A. sar C. iostat sar (System Activity Reporter) and iostat (input/output statistics) are both standard Linux tools for collecting system performance and capacity planning data over time. sar collects CPU, memory, I/O, and network statistics, while iostat specifically monitors disk I/O performance. psstat is not a standard tool, hwtop is not a recognized capacity planning utility, and sysio is not a standard Linux tool. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. psstat is not a standard Linux capacity planning tool. Option D is incorrect. hwtop is not a recognized standard Linux utility for capacity planning data collection. Option E is incorrect. sysio is not a standard Linux tool for collecting capacity planning data. Therefore, A and C are the correct answers.
Play from 14:37 Question 9. What are the possible values to node.startup in the iscsid.conf file? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. login. Option B. initiate. Option C. manual. Option D. discover. Option E. automatic. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are C. manual, and E. automatic. C. manual E. automatic The node.startup parameter in iscsid.conf defines how iSCSI nodes behave at boot time. The value 'automatic' causes the node to automatically connect during startup, while 'manual' requires manual intervention to connect. These are the two standard startup behaviors for iSCSI nodes. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. Login is not a valid node.startup value; it describes an action rather than a startup mode. Option B is incorrect. Initiate is not a recognized node.startup parameter value. Option D is incorrect. Discover is related to iSCSI discovery operations, not the node.startup parameter. Therefore, C and E are the correct answers.
Play from 16:05 Question 10. Which command is used to make an exact copy, at a single point in time, of a logical volume while still allowing the original logical volume to be updated? Here are the options. Option A. lvcclone. Option B. lvcreate. Option C. lvm2. Option D. lvsnap. Option E. lvsnapshot. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is B. lvcreate. The lvcreate command is used to create logical volume snapshots when invoked with the -s or --snapshot option. This creates a point-in-time copy of a logical volume while allowing the original to continue being updated. Snapshots use copy-on-write technology to track changes efficiently. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. lvcclone is not a valid LVM command. Option C is incorrect. lvm2 is the package/suite name, not a command for creating snapshots. Option D is incorrect. lvsnap is not a valid LVM command. Option E is incorrect. lvsnapshot is not a valid LVM command; the correct command is lvcreate with snapshot options. Therefore, B, lvcreate, is the correct answer.
Play from 17:40 Question 11. When is historical data of resource usage important? (Choose three.) Here are the options. Option A. Predicting when resources will need to be increased. Option B. Selecting a computer vendor. Option C. Identifying processes killed during out of memory occurrences. Option D. Diagnosing capacity problems. Option E. Troubleshooting a software problem. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are A. Predicting when resources will need to be increased, and C. Identifying processes killed during out of memory occurrences, and D. Diagnosing capacity problems. Historical resource usage data is crucial for capacity planning and troubleshooting. Option A is correct because trends in resource consumption help predict when upgrades are needed. Option C is correct because historical data can show resource spikes and process terminations during out-of-memory events. Option D is correct because past usage patterns help diagnose current capacity bottlenecks. Option B (vendor selection) is not primarily driven by historical usage data on a current system. Option E (software troubleshooting) typically requires current system state and logs rather than historical resource trends. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. Vendor selection is based on hardware specifications and performance benchmarks, not historical resource usage data from an existing system. Option E is incorrect. Software problem diagnosis relies on logs, error messages, and current behavior rather than historical resource usage patterns. Therefore, A and C and D are the correct answers.
Play from 19:45 Question 12. Which command reports information on memory usage, paging and block input/output? Here are the options. Option A. free. Option B. memshow. Option C. lsof. Option D. pidof. Option E. vmstat. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is E. vmstat. The `vmstat` command reports detailed information on memory usage, paging activity (page ins and page outs), and block input/output statistics. It provides a comprehensive view of virtual memory system performance including CPU activity, memory allocation, disk I/O, and system statistics. The `free` command shows only RAM and swap usage, `memshow` is not standard, `lsof` lists open files, and `pidof` finds process IDs. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. free only reports memory and swap usage summary, not paging or I/O statistics. Option B is incorrect. memshow is not a standard Linux command. Option C is incorrect. lsof lists open files and network connections, not memory or I/O statistics. Option D is incorrect. pidof only identifies process IDs matching a name, not system performance data. Therefore, E, vmstat, is the correct answer.
Play from 21:24 Question 13. A Linux server running systemd booted to rescue.target for maintenance. Which commands are used to restore the server to its usual target? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. telinit 0. Option B. systemctl default. Option C. sync. Option D. systemctl emergency. Option E. systemctl reboot. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are B. systemctl default, and E. systemctl reboot. systemctl default restores the system to its default target (typically multi-user.target or graphical.target), which is the standard way to exit rescue.target. systemctl reboot cleanly reboots the system, bringing it back to its normal operating state. Both commands accomplish the goal of returning the system to normal operation after rescue mode maintenance. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. telinit 0 is a legacy SysVinit command that would shut down the system, not restore normal operation. Option C is incorrect. sync flushes disk buffers but does not change the system target or restore normal operation. Option D is incorrect. systemctl emergency would move to an even more minimal state, not restore normal operation. Therefore, B and E are the correct answers.
Play from 23:06 Question 14. On a Linux node with multiple active network interfaces, each having a default route to the Internet, which default route is preferred? Here are the options. Option A. The default route with the highest metric value. Option B. The default route with the highest MTU value. Option C. The default route with the lowest TTL value. Option D. The default route with the highest TTL value. Option E. The default route with the lowest metric value. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is E. The default route with the lowest metric value. When multiple default routes exist, the route with the lowest metric value is preferred. Metrics represent the cost of a route, where lower values indicate more preferred paths. The kernel uses metrics to determine which route to use when multiple paths to the same destination are available. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. Higher metric values indicate less preferred routes, not more preferred ones. Option B is incorrect. MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) is unrelated to route selection and preference. Option C is incorrect. TTL (Time To Live) is not used to determine route preference in the routing table. Option D is incorrect. Higher TTL values are not used for route preference; routing decisions use metrics, not TTL. Therefore, E, The default route with the lowest metric value, is the correct answer.
Play from 24:53 Question 15. Which two LVM commands are missing from the following sequence which is used to create, format, mount and make use of a logical volume? pvcreate, ________________, __________, mkfs, mount Here are the options. Option A. lvcreate, mdadm. Option B. lvcreate, vgcreate. Option C. lvmcreate, vgcreate. Option D. vgcreate, lvcreate. Option E. vgcreate, mdadm. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is D. vgcreate, lvcreate. The correct LVM workflow is: pvcreate (initialize physical volumes), vgcreate (create volume group from physical volumes), lvcreate (create logical volume from volume group), mkfs (format the logical volume), mount (mount the filesystem). The vgcreate command must precede lvcreate since logical volumes are created within volume groups. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. mdadm is a software RAID tool, not an LVM command; lvcreate should come after vgcreate. Option B is incorrect. The order is reversed; vgcreate must come before lvcreate. Option C is incorrect. lvmcreate is not a valid LVM command; the correct command is lvcreate. Option E is incorrect. mdadm is a RAID tool, not part of the LVM workflow. Therefore, D, vgcreate, lvcreate, is the correct answer.
Play from 26:48 Question 16. Which of the following file systems can be used when preparing an EFI System Partition (ESP)? Here are the options. Option A. ext4. Option B. Btrfs. Option C. XFS. Option D. CramFS. Option E. FAT32. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is E. FAT32. The EFI System Partition (ESP) must use FAT32 (or FAT12/FAT16) as its filesystem. This is an EFI specification requirement because EFI firmware implementations universally support FAT filesystems. Options A, B, and C (ext4, Btrfs, XFS) are Linux-native filesystems that EFI firmware cannot read. Option D (CramFS) is a compressed read-only filesystem not suitable for ESP which needs to be readable and writable by the firmware. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. ext4 is a Linux filesystem that EFI firmware cannot read or execute boot files from. Option B is incorrect. Btrfs is a Linux filesystem incompatible with EFI firmware requirements. Option C is incorrect. XFS is a Linux filesystem not supported by EFI firmware specifications. Option D is incorrect. CramFS is a compressed read-only filesystem unsuitable for the ESP which requires read/write access by firmware. Therefore, E, FAT32, is the correct answer.
Play from 28:47 Question 17. Which of the following init systems comes along with an own UEFI boot loader? Here are the options. Option A. systemd. Option B. SysVinit. Option C. Upstart. Option D. OpenRC. Option E. launchd. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. systemd. systemd is the modern init system that includes systemd-boot (also called bootctl), a UEFI boot manager and bootloader integrated directly into the systemd project. This provides native UEFI boot functionality alongside the init system. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. SysVinit is a traditional init system that does not include its own bootloader. Option C is incorrect. Upstart is an event-driven init system that does not provide a UEFI bootloader. Option D is incorrect. OpenRC is a dependency-based init system that does not include a UEFI bootloader. Option E is incorrect. launchd is macOS's init system and is not relevant to Linux UEFI booting. Therefore, A, systemd, is the correct answer.
Play from 30:17 Question 18. Which of the following targets are usually included in a makefile that is included in a source code package? Here are the options. Option A. CFLAGS, CPPFLAGS, LIBS, LDFLAGS. Option B. clean, install, uninstall. Option C. PATHS, DESTDIR, LIBS, LDFLAGS. Option D. prefix, exec_prefix, bindir, mandir. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is B. clean, install, uninstall. In standard makefiles included with source packages, 'clean', 'install', and 'uninstall' are the typical phony targets that perform common build operations. CFLAGS, CPPFLAGS, LIBS, and LDFLAGS are variables, not targets. PATHS, DESTDIR, prefix, exec_prefix, bindir, and mandir are also variables used for configuration and installation paths, not build targets. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. These are makefile variables for compiler and linker flags, not targets. Option C is incorrect. These are installation path variables, not build targets. Option D is incorrect. These are configuration variables for installation directories, not build targets. Therefore, B, clean, install, uninstall, is the correct answer.
Play from 32:03 Question 19. What is the purpose of a system mount unit? Here are the options. Option A. It is used by the command systemd-mount and allows users to mount partitions to mount points of their choice. Option B. It is used only to mount network file systems to local mount points. It cannot be used for local media. Option C. It is created by the command systemd-fstab-generator to integrate entries from /etc/fstab into the system boot process. Option D. It is used by the command mount when using system to mount and unmount file systems. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is C. It is created by the command systemd-fstab-generator to integrate entries from /etc/fstab into the system boot process. A system mount unit is a systemd unit file (.mount) that is generated by systemd-fstab- generator to convert traditional /etc/fstab entries into systemd mount units. This integration allows fstab entries to be managed within the systemd boot and service management framework, enabling dependency tracking and parallel mounting. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. While systemd-mount can use mount units, the primary purpose of mount units is to integrate fstab entries into systemd, not to provide user-choice mounting mechanisms. Option B is incorrect. Mount units are not restricted to network filesystems; they handle both local and remote filesystems equally. Option D is incorrect. The mount command does not use system or systemd mount units; mount units are part of systemd's native management system. Therefore, C, It is created by the command systemd-fstab-generator to integrate entries from /etc/fstab into the system boot process, is the correct answer.
Play from 34:16 Question 20. A network client has an Ethernet interface (eth0) configured with an IP address in the subnet 192.168.0.0/24. This subnet has a router, with the IP address 192.168.0.1, that connects this subnet to the Internet. Which of the following commands can be used on the client to enable it to use the router as its default gateway? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. route add default gw 192.168.0.1 eth0. Option B. ifconfig eth0 defaultroute 192.168.0.1. Option C. ip route add default via 192.168.0.1. Option D. echo defaultroute 192.168.0.1 >>/etc/resolv.conf. Option E. route add defaultgw=192.168.0.1 if=eth0. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are A. route add default gw 192.168.0.1 eth0, and C. ip route add default via 192.168.0.1. Both commands correctly add a default gateway. Option A uses the route command with the syntax 'route add default gw 192.168.0.1 eth0', which is the classic method. Option C uses the modern ip command with 'ip route add default via 192.168.0.1', which is the preferred approach in modern Linux systems. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. ifconfig does not support a defaultroute parameter; this syntax is invalid. Option D is incorrect. The /etc/resolv.conf file is for DNS configuration, not routing or default gateway settings. Option E is incorrect. The route command does not use the syntax 'defaultgw=192.168.0.1 if=eth0'; this is incorrect syntax. Therefore, A and C are the correct answers.
Play from 36:44 Question 21. Which of the following actions ensure that changes become effective after updating the configuration file for syslogd? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. No action is required, syslogd will notice the updated configuration file after a few minutes. Option B. Send the HUP signal to the syslogd process. Option C. Restart the syslogd service. Option D. Run the command syslogd -u. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are B. Send the HUP signal to the syslogd process, and C. Restart the syslogd service. After updating the syslogd configuration file, the changes can be applied by sending the HUP (hangup) signal to the syslogd process, which causes it to reload its configuration without stopping (option B), or by restarting the syslogd service entirely (option C). Both methods ensure the daemon reads the updated configuration file. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. Syslogd does not automatically detect and reload configuration file changes; manual intervention is required. Option D is incorrect. The syslogd -u command is not a standard method for reloading syslogd configuration; this flag does not trigger configuration reloading. Therefore, B and C are the correct answers.
Play from 38:29 Question 22. Which RAID level value must be used with Linux software RAID in order to create an array of mirrored devices? Here are the options. Option A. 1. Option B. 5. Option C. 6. Option D. container. Option E. mirrorstripe. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. 1. RAID level 1 creates a mirrored array where data is duplicated across multiple devices for redundancy. This is the standard RAID level used in Linux software RAID (mdadm) when mirroring is required. The value is specified with the -l or --level flag when creating the array. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. RAID 5 uses striping with parity, not mirroring. Option C is incorrect. RAID 6 uses dual parity striping, not mirroring. Option D is incorrect. Container is not a RAID level; it's a metadata format. Option E is incorrect. Mirrorstripe is not a valid RAID level designation. Therefore, A, 1, is the correct answer.
Play from 39:53 Question 23. What is the purpose of the command udevadm monitor? Here are the options. Option A. It listens to kernel events produced by a udev rule and prints information to the console. Option B. It monitors the /dev/ directory for new devices. Option C. It monitors the udev process and prints performance statistics to the console. Option D. It communicates with D-Bus to setup new devices. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. It listens to kernel events produced by a udev rule and prints information to the console. The udevadm monitor command listens to kernel events (uevent) and udev events produced by udev rules, printing detailed information about device additions, removals, and changes to the console. It is used for debugging and monitoring device activity. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. While udevadm monitor shows device events, it does not directly monitor the /dev/ directory but rather listens to kernel events. Option C is incorrect. udevadm monitor does not print performance statistics; it prints event information. Option D is incorrect. udevadm monitor does not communicate with D-Bus directly; it listens to kernel and udev events. Therefore, A, It listens to kernel events produced by a udev rule and prints information to the console, is the correct answer.
Play from 41:40 Question 24. Which of the following commands by default provides the PIDs of the processes sorted by which are using the most CPU cycles on the Linux system? Here are the options. Option A. top. Option B. uptime. Option C. ps aux. Option D. vmstat. Option E. freemem. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. top. The `top` command displays processes sorted by CPU usage by default, showing the most CPU-intensive processes at the top of the list. It provides real-time monitoring of process activity including PIDs and their resource consumption. The `uptime` command only shows load averages, `ps aux` lists processes but doesn't sort by CPU by default, `vmstat` reports virtual memory statistics, and `freemem` is not a standard Linux command. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. uptime only displays load averages and system uptime, not process PIDs or CPU usage. Option C is incorrect. ps aux lists all processes but does not sort by CPU usage by default. Option D is incorrect. vmstat reports virtual memory statistics, not individual process CPU usage. Option E is incorrect. freemem is not a standard Linux command for monitoring process CPU usage. Therefore, A, top, is the correct answer.
Play from 43:26 Question 25. What component of a system does smartd monitor? Here are the options. Option A. CPU. Option B. RAM. Option C. Hard drives. Option D. Ethernet traffic. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is C. Hard drives. smartd is the SMART (Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology) daemon that monitors the health and status of hard drives and SSDs. It checks SMART attributes from storage devices to predict and detect potential failures before they occur. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. smartd does not monitor CPU; CPU monitoring uses different tools like lm_sensors or performance monitoring daemons. Option B is incorrect. smartd does not monitor RAM; memory monitoring requires separate tools and mechanisms. Option D is incorrect. smartd does not monitor network traffic; network monitoring uses tools like netstat, iftop, or packet sniffers. Therefore, C, Hard drives, is the correct answer.
Play from 44:55 Question 26. In order to display information about the hardware of a Linux systems, which of the following commands can be used? (Choose three.) Here are the options. Option A. lsdev. Option B. lsusb. Option C. lspci. Option D. lsmem. Option E. lskvm. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are B. lsusb, and C. lspci, and D. lsmem. B. lsusb C. lspci D. lsmem lsusb displays USB device information, lspci shows PCI device details, and lsmem provides memory information. These are standard Linux commands for querying hardware. lsdev is not a standard command on modern Linux systems, and lskvm is not a recognized hardware information utility. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. lsdev is not a standard Linux command for displaying hardware information Option E is incorrect. lskvm is not a recognized command for displaying hardware details Therefore, B and C and D are the correct answers.
Play from 46:25 Question 27. Which command can be used to scan a specified network by looking for IP addresses that appear to be in use? Here are the options. Option A. nmap. Option B. tcpdump. Option C. ip. Option D. netscan. Option E. hostdiscover. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. nmap. Nmap is the standard tool for network scanning and discovering active IP addresses on a specified network. It can perform ping sweeps and port scans to identify hosts that are in use, making it ideal for network reconnaissance and host discovery tasks. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. Tcpdump is a packet capture tool for analyzing network traffic, not for actively scanning and discovering hosts on a network. Option C is incorrect. The ip command is used for local network configuration and display, not for scanning remote networks. Option D is incorrect. Netscan is not a standard Linux command; this tool does not exist in typical Linux distributions. Option E is incorrect. Hostdiscover is not a standard Linux utility; this command does not exist in typical Linux distributions. Therefore, A, nmap, is the correct answer.
Play from 48:02 Question 28. Why should the command zip not be used to create backups from Linux file systems? Here are the options. Option A. It does not exist for the Linux operating system. Option B. It does not store ownership and rights. Option C. It can only be used to compress single files but not for directory structures. Option D. It can only stores files up to a size of 1 GiB and is therefore not suitable for large Linux files. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is B. It does not store ownership and rights. The zip format does not preserve Unix/Linux file ownership, permissions, and other metadata critical to Linux filesystem integrity. When a zip archive is extracted, files may not retain their original owner, group, and permission settings, making zip unsuitable for complete Linux system backups. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. The zip command does exist on Linux systems, so this is not the reason to avoid it Option C is incorrect. zip can compress directory structures recursively, so this limitation does not apply Option D is incorrect. zip does not have a 1 GiB file size limitation; it can handle files larger than 4 GiB with zip64 extensions Therefore, B, It does not store ownership and rights, is the correct answer.
Play from 49:46 Question 29. Which of the following commands lists all wireless networks visible to the interface wlan0? Here are the options. Option A. iwlist scan wlan0. Option B. iw scan wlan0. Option C. iw list wlan0. Option D. iwlist wlan0 scan. Option E. iw dev wlan0 list. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is D. iwlist wlan0 scan. The iwlist wlan0 scan command is the correct syntax for scanning visible wireless networks on the wlan0 interface. The iwlist utility is used for wireless configuration and information retrieval, and 'scan' is the proper subcommand that lists all visible wireless networks with their details. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. While iwlist is correct, the syntax 'iwlist scan wlan0' places arguments in the wrong order; iwlist requires the interface before the subcommand. Option B is incorrect. The iw scan wlan0 syntax is incorrect; iw requires the 'dev' keyword before the interface name. Option C is incorrect. The iw list wlan0 command displays capabilities and features, not visible wireless networks. Option E is incorrect. The iw dev wlan0 list command is not valid syntax; the correct scanning command uses 'scan' not 'list'. Therefore, D, iwlist wlan0 scan, is the correct answer.
Play from 51:47 Question 30. How many different passwords can be used for a LUKS partition at the same time? Here are the options. Option A. 4. Option B. 8. Option C. 16. Option D. 32. Option E. 64. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is B. 8. LUKS (Linux Unified Key Setup) supports up to 8 different password slots simultaneously. Each slot can contain a different password or key, allowing multiple users or passphrases to unlock the same encrypted partition independently. This design provides flexibility for key management and recovery options. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. LUKS supports 8 slots, not 4. Option C is incorrect. LUKS supports 8 slots, not 16. Option D is incorrect. LUKS supports 8 slots, not 32. Option E is incorrect. LUKS supports 8 slots, not 64. Therefore, B, 8, is the correct answer.
Play from 53:08 Question 31. Which of the following are common Linux filesystem types used for root partitions? (Choose three.) Here are the options. Option A. ext4. Option B. VFAT. Option C. NTFS. Option D. XFS. Option E. Btrfs. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are A. ext4, and D. XFS, and E. Btrfs. A. ext4 D. XFS E. Btrfs ext4, XFS, and Btrfs are all modern, journaling filesystems suitable for root partitions in Linux systems. ext4 is the most commonly used default, XFS is a high-performance filesystem used in enterprise environments, and Btrfs is a next-generation filesystem with advanced features. VFAT and NTFS are unsuitable for root partitions as they lack essential Linux features like proper permissions, ownership, and journaling. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. VFAT lacks support for Linux file permissions, ownership, and symlinks, making it unsuitable for a root filesystem. Option C is incorrect. NTFS is a Windows filesystem that does not properly support Linux file permissions and attributes required for a root partition. Therefore, A and D and E are the correct answers.
Play from 54:55 Question 32. If the file containing the Linux kernel is deleted, what happens when the system boots? Here are the options. Option A. The system starts normally since the bootloader copies the kernel to the master boot record of the hard disk. Option B. Instead of the kernel, the initramfs is loaded and instructed to mount the root filesystem and reinstall the kernel from the original package or from source. Option C. The bootloader mounts the root filesystem read-only and launches /bin/sh directly in order to allow the administrator to reinstall the kernel. Option D. Without a kernel system cannot boot and, depending on the bootloader, an error is displayed. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is D. Without a kernel system cannot boot and, depending on the bootloader, an error is displayed. If the kernel file is deleted, the system cannot boot at all. The bootloader can load the kernel into memory and transfer control to it, but if the kernel file does not exist, the bootloader will fail and display an error. No automatic recovery mechanisms exist to reinstall a missing kernel. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. The bootloader does not copy the kernel to the MBR; it loads the kernel from the filesystem. Option B is incorrect. The initramfs cannot function without a kernel to run; it is loaded by the kernel, not independently. Option C is incorrect. The bootloader cannot mount the root filesystem or launch a shell without a kernel being executed. Therefore, D, Without a kernel system cannot boot and, depending on the bootloader, an error is displayed, is the correct answer.
Play from 56:58 Question 33. Where would fsck put any unreferenced file or file fragments on a ext4 filesystem? Here are the options. Option A. recover. Option B. lost+found. Option C. back. Option D. lost. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is B. lost+found. The fsck utility places unreferenced files and file fragments in the lost+found directory at the root of the filesystem. This directory is created automatically during filesystem creation and serves as a recovery location for files that become orphaned due to filesystem corruption or unexpected system shutdown. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. There is no standard 'recover' directory for fsck output. Option C is incorrect. There is no standard 'back' directory for fsck output. Option D is incorrect. There is no standard 'lost' directory; the correct directory is 'lost+found'. Therefore, B, lost+found, is the correct answer.
Play from 58:18 Question 34. What is the minimum number of disks required in a fully redundant RAID5 array? Here are the options. Option A. 1. Option B. 2. Option C. 3. Option D. 4. Option E. 5. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is C. 3. RAID 5 requires a minimum of 3 disks to function. It stripes data across disks and uses distributed parity to provide redundancy. With 3 disks, one disk worth of capacity is used for parity information, allowing recovery from a single disk failure. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. One disk provides no redundancy and is not a valid RAID configuration. Option B is incorrect. Two disks cannot provide the striping and parity protection that RAID 5 requires. Option D is incorrect. While 4 disks is a valid RAID 5 configuration, the minimum requirement is 3 disks. Option E is incorrect. Five disks is a valid configuration but exceeds the minimum requirement. Therefore, C, 3, is the correct answer.
Play from 59:50 Question 35. Which type of systemd unit types provides a functionality similar to SysV init runlevels? Here are the options. Option A. level. Option B. destination. Option C. target. Option D. mode. Option E. service. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is C. target. In systemd, target units provide functionality equivalent to SysV init runlevels. Targets are special unit files that group other units and represent system states (such as multi- user.target or rescue.target, analogous to runlevels 3 and 1 in SysV). Options A (level), B (destination), and D (mode) are not systemd unit types. Option E (service) is a unit type but represents individual services, not system run states. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. level is not a systemd unit type. Option B is incorrect. destination is not a systemd unit type. Option D is incorrect. mode is not a systemd unit type. Option E is incorrect. service units represent individual services, not system run states comparable to runlevels. Therefore, C, target, is the correct answer.
Play from 1:01:26 Question 36. Which of the following tools assist in capacity planning by listing and identifying Linux processes of interest? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. acpid. Option B. lsof. Option C. pstree. Option D. telinit. Option E. lsproc. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are B. lsof, and C. pstree. B. lsof C. pstree lsof (list open files) and pstree (process tree) are tools that assist in identifying and listing processes of interest for capacity planning. lsof shows which processes have which files open, and pstree displays the process hierarchy. acpid is for ACPI events, telinit controls runlevels, and lsproc is not a standard Linux tool. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. acpid is a daemon for handling ACPI events, not for process listing or capacity planning. Option D is incorrect. telinit changes system runlevels; it does not identify processes for capacity planning. Option E is incorrect. lsproc is not a standard Linux utility for process identification. Therefore, B and C are the correct answers.
Play from 1:03:00 Question 37. In order to gather performance data with sar over a longer period of time, which command should be run periodically from cron? Here are the options. Option A. sa1. Option B. sarmon. Option C. sarec. Option D. sadf. Option E. sarcron. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. sa1. The `sa1` command is the data collection script for `sar` that should be run periodically from cron to gather performance data over time. It collects system activity information and stores it in binary format for later analysis with `sar`. The other options are either non- existent or serve different purposes: `sarmon` and `sarcron` are not standard tools, `sadf` converts sar data to different formats, and `sarec` is not a recognized command. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. sarmon is not a standard system activity reporting command. Option C is incorrect. sarec is not a recognized sar-related command. Option D is incorrect. sadf converts existing sar data to different formats but does not collect data periodically. Option E is incorrect. sarcron is not a standard Linux command for sar data collection. Therefore, A, sa1, is the correct answer.
Play from 1:04:41 Question 38. What should be done to ensure a client machine uses the recursive nameserver running on the IP address 192.168.0.1? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. Add nameserver 192.168.0.1 to /etc/resolv.conf. Option B. Run route add nameserver 192.168.0.1. Option C. Run ifconfig eth0 nameserver 192.168.0.1. Option D. Ensure that the dns service is listed in the hosts entry in the /etc/nsswitch.conf file. Option E. Run bind add nameserver 192.168.0.1. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are A. Add nameserver 192.168.0.1 to /etc/resolv.conf, and D. Ensure that the dns service is listed in the hosts entry in the /etc/nsswitch.conf file. To use a recursive nameserver at 192.168.0.1, two steps are needed. First, add the nameserver to /etc/resolv.conf using 'nameserver 192.168.0.1', which tells the resolver where to send queries. Second, ensure /etc/nsswitch.conf includes 'dns' in the hosts entry so that DNS is consulted for hostname resolution. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. The route command is for managing routing tables, not DNS nameserver configuration. Option C is incorrect. ifconfig is used for interface configuration and does not support nameserver parameters. Option E is incorrect. bind is a DNS server package; 'bind add nameserver' is not a valid command for configuring the resolver. Therefore, A and D are the correct answers.
Play from 1:07:02 Question 39. In order to monitor the operations of a web application cluster, a special web page has been created on all application servers which outputs either OK or FAILURE, based on the current health of the respective server. Which of following tools provides capabilities to regularly query these web pages and generate an alert in case one or more application servers are in a failed state? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. MRTG. Option B. Cacti. Option C. Nagios. Option D. Icinga 2. Option E. collectd. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are C. Nagios, and D. Icinga 2. C. Nagios D. Icinga 2 Nagios and Icinga 2 are enterprise monitoring solutions specifically designed to regularly check services (including custom HTTP endpoints) and generate alerts based on status changes. Both tools can query custom web pages and trigger alerts when they return FAILURE responses. MRTG is for traffic graphing, Cacti is for performance graphing (not alerting on status), and collectd is for metrics collection without built-in alerting. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. MRTG is a network traffic monitoring and graphing tool, not a service status monitoring tool. Option B is incorrect. Cacti is designed for performance metric visualization and graphing, not for status monitoring and alerting. Option E is incorrect. collectd is a metrics collection daemon that lacks the alerting capabilities needed for this scenario. Therefore, C and D are the correct answers.
Play from 1:09:05 Question 40. What is the functionality that PXE provides? Here are the options. Option A. The ability to boot a computer using its network interface. Option B. The ability to launch a remote X11 desktop on a computer. Option C. The ability to verify a system's configuration after completing the boot process. Option D. The ability to verify a system's configuration before completing the boot process. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. The ability to boot a computer using its network interface. PXE (Preboot eXecution Environment) is a standardized client-server interface that allows computers to boot over the network using their network interface card (NIC) before the operating system is loaded. This is its primary and defining function. Option B describes X11 remote desktop, which is unrelated to PXE. Options C and D describe system configuration verification, which occurs after booting is complete, not as a function of PXE itself. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. X11 desktop launching is a graphical remote access feature, not related to PXE's network boot functionality. Option C is incorrect. Configuration verification after boot is a post-boot activity and not a PXE function. Option D is incorrect. While configuration might be verified before boot completion, this is not the primary functionality PXE provides. Therefore, A, The ability to boot a computer using its network interface, is the correct answer.
Play from 1:11:03 Question 41. Which of the following items are alternate Linux boot loaders? (Choose three.) Here are the options. Option A. SYSLINUX. Option B. NTLINUX. Option C. PXELINUX. Option D. ISOLINUX. Option E. UEFILINUX. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are A. SYSLINUX, and C. PXELINUX, and D. ISOLINUX. A. SYSLINUX C. PXELINUX D. ISOLINUX SYSLINUX, PXELINUX, and ISOLINUX are all legitimate alternative Linux boot loaders. SYSLINUX (option A) is used for booting from removable media and local filesystems. PXELINUX (option C) is a variant for PXE network booting. ISOLINUX (option D) is specifically designed for booting from CD/DVD ISO images. Option B, NTLINUX, is not a recognized Linux boot loader. Option E, UEFILINUX, is not a standard boot loader name; UEFI systems typically use GRUB2 or other established loaders. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. NTLINUX is not a real or recognized Linux boot loader. Option E is incorrect. UEFILINUX is not a standard Linux boot loader; UEFI boot typically uses GRUB2 or other established loaders. Therefore, A and C and D are the correct answers.
Play from 1:12:43 Question 42. A server requires a GRUB2 boot option which will always boot to runlevel 1. Which command in a GRUB2 configuration file starts the beginning of the settings needed to make this new choice available? Here are the options. Option A. initrd. Option B. linux. Option C. menuentry. Option D. runlevel. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is C. menuentry. In GRUB2 configuration files, the menuentry command is used to define a new boot menu entry with its settings and parameters. This command marks the beginning of a menu choice definition, including options like which kernel to boot and what parameters to pass (such as runlevel specifications). Option A (initrd) specifies the initial ramdisk but doesn't start a menu entry definition. Option B (linux) specifies the kernel but is not the command that begins a boot option definition. Option D (runlevel) is not a valid GRUB2 command. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. initrd specifies the initial ramdisk file but does not begin a boot menu entry definition. Option B is incorrect. linux specifies the kernel to boot but is not the command that starts a new menu entry definition. Option D is incorrect. runlevel is not a recognized GRUB2 configuration command; runlevel specification would be passed as a kernel parameter. Therefore, C, menuentry, is the correct answer.
Play from 1:14:36 Question 43. Which of the following commands lists IPv4 addresses and MAC addresses of network nodes that the local system has seen on its directly connected IP networks? Here are the options. Option A. arp. Option B. ifconfig. Option C. ipadm. Option D. iwlist. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is A. arp. The 'arp' command displays the Address Resolution Protocol table, which lists IPv4 addresses and their corresponding MAC addresses for nodes seen on directly connected networks. This command shows the ARP cache containing IP-to-MAC address mappings. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. ifconfig displays local network interface configuration but does not show ARP table entries for remote nodes. Option C is incorrect. ipadm is a Solaris/illumos command for IP administration and is not commonly used on Linux systems for ARP queries. Option D is incorrect. iwlist is used for wireless interface scanning and information, not for displaying ARP tables or MAC addresses. Therefore, A, arp, is the correct answer.
Play from 1:16:09 Question 44. Which of the following commands can be used to script interactions with various TCP or UDP services? Here are the options. Option A. ftp. Option B. nc. Option C. tcpdump. Option D. strings. Option E. wget. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is B. nc. Netcat (nc) is designed for reading from and writing to network connections using TCP or UDP protocols. It can be used to script interactions with various services by establishing connections, sending data, and receiving responses, making it ideal for testing, debugging, and scripting network services. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. FTP is a specific file transfer protocol client, not a general tool for scripting arbitrary TCP/UDP service interactions. Option C is incorrect. Tcpdump is a packet capture utility for analyzing network traffic, not for initiating or scripting service interactions. Option D is incorrect. Strings is a utility for extracting printable strings from binary files, not for network service interactions. Option E is incorrect. Wget is a file download utility specific to HTTP/HTTPS, not a general tool for scripting arbitrary TCP/UDP services. Therefore, B, nc, is the correct answer.
Play from 1:17:53 Question 45. Which of the following is a CD-ROM filesystem standard? Here are the options. Option A. OSI 9660. Option B. ISO 9660. Option C. SR0FS. Option D. ISO 8859. Option E. ROM-EO. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is B. ISO 9660. ISO 9660 is the international standard filesystem format for CD-ROMs, defining how files and directories are organized on optical media. It was developed by the International Organization for Standardization and is universally recognized as the CD-ROM filesystem standard. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. OSI 9660 does not exist; the correct designation is ISO 9660. Option C is incorrect. SROFS is not a recognized CD-ROM filesystem standard. Option D is incorrect. ISO 8859 is a character encoding standard, not a filesystem standard. Option E is incorrect. ROM-EO is not a recognized filesystem standard for CD-ROMs. Therefore, B, ISO 9660, is the correct answer.
Play from 1:19:40 Question 46. Which commands below are useful to collect data about remote filesystem connections? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. pidstat. Option B. nfsiostat. Option C. sadf. Option D. cifsiostat. Option E. fsiostat. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are B. nfsiostat, and D. cifsiostat. The `nfsiostat` command provides I/O statistics for NFS (Network File System) mounts, and `cifsiostat` provides I/O statistics for CIFS/SMB (Common Internet File System) mounts. These tools are specifically designed to collect data about remote filesystem connections and their performance. `pidstat` monitors individual process statistics, `sadf` converts sar data formats, and `fsiostat` is not a standard command. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. pidstat reports per-process statistics, not remote filesystem connection data. Option C is incorrect. sadf converts existing sar data but does not specifically collect remote filesystem statistics. Option E is incorrect. fsiostat is not a standard Linux command for remote filesystem monitoring. Therefore, B and D are the correct answers.
Play from 1:21:22 Question 47. Which of the following commands displays the UUID label and type for all partitions and volumes of a Linux system? Here are the options. Option A. lsdevs. Option B. blkid. Option C. lsmount. Option D. blkls. Option E. blkinfo. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answer is B. blkid. The blkid command is the standard Linux utility for displaying block device attributes including UUID, labels, and filesystem types for all partitions and volumes on a system. It reads device metadata and provides comprehensive information needed for system administration and configuration. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. lsdevs is not a standard Linux command for displaying partition information. Option C is incorrect. lsmount is not a standard command; mount or findmnt would be used to show mounted filesystems. Option D is incorrect. blkls is part of the Sleuth Kit for forensics, not for displaying standard partition metadata. Option E is incorrect. blkinfo is not a standard Linux command for displaying partition information. Therefore, B, blkid, is the correct answer.
Play from 1:23:03 Question 48. Which of the following terms are used to describe 3.x and 4.x kernel releases? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. beta. Option B. longterm. Option C. prerelease. Option D. releasecandidate. Option E. stable. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are B. longterm, and E. stable. B. longterm E. stable Linux kernel 3.x and 4.x releases are classified as either 'longterm' (LTS versions with extended support) or 'stable' (standard releases). These terms describe the maintenance category and support duration of kernel versions. Beta, prerelease, and releasecandidate refer to pre-release stages that precede stable versions. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option A is incorrect. Beta describes pre-release development versions, not completed 3.x or 4.x kernels Option C is incorrect. Prerelease is not the terminology used for 3.x and 4.x kernel classification Option D is incorrect. Releasecandidate refers to versions being tested before release, not released kernels Therefore, B and E are the correct answers.
Play from 1:24:38 Question 49. Which compression formats can be used to create initramfs images? (Choose two.) Here are the options. Option A. gzip. Option B. arc. Option C. rar. Option D. cpio. Option E. bzip2. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are A. gzip, and E. bzip2. A. gzip E. bzip2 gzip and bzip2 are the two standard compression formats used for initramfs images on Linux systems. Both are widely supported and commonly used by bootloaders and kernel initialization code to reduce the size of the initial ramdisk. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option B is incorrect. arc is not a recognized or standard compression format for initramfs images Option C is incorrect. rar is a proprietary compression format not used for Linux initramfs creation Option D is incorrect. cpio is an archive format used within initramfs, not a compression format itself Therefore, A and E are the correct answers.
Play from 1:26:04 Question 50. Which of the following actions can be performed with the command hostname? (Choose three.) Here are the options. Option A. Display the local node's host name including domain. Option B. Set a new host name for the local node. Option C. Display all IP addresses associated with the local node. Option D. Display all MAC addresses of the local node. Option E. Display all used host names set in the past, including the current host name. Pause the video now if you want time to think about the answer.
The correct answers are A. Display the local node's host name including domain, and B. Set a new host name for the local node, and C. Display all IP addresses associated with the local node. The hostname command can display the local node's hostname including domain name (option A), set a new hostname for the system (option B), and display all IP addresses associated with the local node when used with appropriate flags like 'hostname -I' (option C). These three capabilities cover the primary hostname management functions available through this command. Now, why are the other options incorrect? Option D is incorrect. The hostname command does not display MAC addresses; MAC address information requires tools like ifconfig, ip, or arp. Option E is incorrect. The hostname command does not maintain or display a history of previously-set hostnames; it only shows and sets the current hostname. Therefore, A and B and C are the correct answers.
