30 free PeopleCert PRINCE2 7 Foundation practice questions from the CertStash pack of 120, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. The rule is the same for every exam: ten free on the product page, 30 free here, all 120 in the pack, and each step includes the one before it.
Get all 120 questions (US$39) · Download the first 10 as a PDF · Read the study guide
Question 1
Which action should the project manager take to ensure effective progress management when a team manager is inexperienced?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Increase the frequency of checkpoint reports
When a team manager is inexperienced, the project manager should increase the frequency of checkpoint reports to maintain closer visibility and oversight of progress. More frequent reporting allows early detection of issues and enables timely intervention. This is a core principle of effective delegated management; maintaining appropriate control through increased monitoring when competence is uncertain.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Allowing cost tolerance flexibility would reduce rather than increase control, which is inappropriate for an inexperienced manager.
- C. While event-driven controls are useful, checkpoint reports provide systematic progress visibility that is essential when managing inexperienced staff.
- D. Increasing escalations would be reactive rather than proactive and would not prevent problems from occurring.
Question 2
Which action contributes to achieving the ‘ensure continued business justification’ principle?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Ensuring that the project remains worthwhile throughout the lifecycle of the project
The 'ensure continued business justification' principle requires that the project remains worthwhile throughout its lifecycle. This means continuously verifying that the project delivers value and should continue. Ensuring the project remains worthwhile throughout its lifecycle directly embodies this principle by maintaining ongoing validation of the business case.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Adapting PRINCE2 to project scale relates to tailoring the methodology, not to maintaining business justification.
- B. Assigning roles and responsibilities is about project organization, not about validating ongoing business value.
- C. Establishing authority limits based on tolerances relates to control and governance, not to evaluating business justification.
Question 3
Which term is defined as the means by which an organization transitions from its current state to the target state?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Change management
Change management is defined as the means by which an organization transitions from its current state to a target state. This is the standard definition in both PRINCE2 and broader project management practice. It encompasses the processes, tools, and techniques used to facilitate organizational transformation.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Progress management refers to monitoring and controlling project execution against plans.
- B. Change control is the process of assessing and approving specific changes, not the overall transition mechanism.
- D. Risk management deals with identifying and mitigating uncertainties, not organizational transition.
Question 4
Which is a purpose of the communication management approach?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. To define how the project team intends to obtain responses from stakeholders
The purpose of the communication management approach is to define how the project team intends to obtain responses and engagement from stakeholders. It establishes the methods, frequency, and channels through which communication will occur to ensure stakeholder involvement throughout the project.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Identifying uncertainties is a purpose of risk management, not communication management.
- B. Making products acceptable to stakeholders relates to quality management and acceptance criteria, not communication planning.
- C. Describing the target organizational state is part of change management or business case definition, not communication management.
Question 5
The project board needs to confirm that there is enough information to initiate the project. What should the project beard review?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Project brief
The project board should review the Project Brief to confirm there is enough information to initiate the project. The Project Brief contains the essential information needed for the project board to make the go/no-go decision to proceed into the initiation stage, including business justification, high-level requirements, and constraints.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Project initiation documentation is created during initiation, not reviewed before initiating.
- C. The benefits management approach is part of detailed project planning, not the initial decision to start.
- D. The Project Plan is developed during initiation and provides too much detail for the initial gate decision.
Question 6
Which is a purpose of the ‘initiating a project’ process?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. To enable the project board to empower the project manager to work within delegated authority limits
The 'initiating a project' process exists to establish solid foundations for the project, enabling the project board to understand and commit to the work required before authorizing the project to proceed. A key part of this is that the project board, once satisfied with the plans and controls set out in the Project Initiation Documentation, empowers the project manager to run the project on a day-to-day basis within clearly delegated authority limits. This delegation of authority is a defining outcome of initiation, distinguishing it from earlier or later stages of the project lifecycle.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Preparing a contract for delivery is not part of PRINCE2's initiating a project purpose; it relates to procurement or commercial activities outside this process.
- B. Providing just enough information to approve the initiation stage is the purpose of 'starting up a project', which precedes initiation.
- C. Confirming the senior user's acceptance of the project product relates to closing a project, not initiating one.
Question 7
According to the ‘exception management’ technique, when should the team manager raise an issue?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. When the team manager predicts that a product will cause a work package to exceed its time tolerance
According to exception management, the team manager should raise an issue when they predict that a product will cause a work package to exceed its time tolerance. Exception management is about early warning; raising issues when a forecast breach is predicted, not when it has already occurred. This allows the project manager to take corrective action before the tolerance is actually breached.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Predicting a stage breach is too high a level; team managers manage work packages, not stages.
- B. Identifying that a product is late is reactive, not predictive exception management.
- D. Identifying that a tolerance has already been exceeded is reactive; exceptions should be raised based on forecast predictions.
Question 8
The project manager has created a list or tasks to produce the project’s products. Which step of the ‘organizational design and development’ technique should be informed by this list?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Develop the project ecosystem
The list of tasks to produce the project's products should inform the 'Develop the project ecosystem' step. This step determines what roles, responsibilities, and organizational structures are needed to execute the identified work. The task list directly feeds into designing who needs to do what within the project organization.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Designing the project ecosystem is the overall activity, but developing it is the specific step informed by the task list.
- B. Understanding the organizational ecosystem occurs before designing, as it establishes the starting context.
- C. Managing ongoing changes to the ecosystem happens during project execution, not during initial design based on the task list.
Question 9
When developing a business case, the project manager reviewed the end project report from a previous similar project that stated that costs had been underestimated on the project. Which principle is being applied by the project manager when reviewing this information?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Learn from experience
The project manager is reviewing historical data from a previous similar project to inform current estimating decisions. This is the application of the 'learn from experience' principle, which requires using lessons and outcomes from past projects to improve future delivery.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Tailor to suit the project is about adapting PRINCE2 processes to the specific project context, not about using historical data.
- C. Manage by stages concerns breaking work into manageable phases, not about learning from past project outcomes.
- D. Ensure continued business justification is about regularly validating that a project remains worthwhile, not about applying historical insights.
Question 10
Which is a purpose of the plans practice?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. To provide the basis for control against which a project’s progress can be monitored
The plans practice creates documented plans that serve as baselines against which actual project progress can be compared and monitored. This enables measurement of whether the project is performing as expected and supports control activities.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This describes the purpose of the controls practice, not the plans practice.
- B. Product quality standards are established through the quality practice, not the plans practice.
- D. Managing opportunities and threats relates to the risk practice and assurance, not the primary purpose of planning.
What people say about the full PRINCE2 7 Foundation pack 4.6 from 25
PRINCE2 braindumps were suggested to me by my teacher. The way the superbly prepared content helped me was beyond my expectations. Passed PRINCE2 exam today.
these dumps for prince2-foundation exam helped me pass my test easily. the contents are up to date and so I found most of the questions presented in these materials in my real exam! these files will really increase your possibility of passing
Latest dumps for PRINCE2 exam at Cert Stash. Highly suggested to all. I passed my exam with 93% marks with the help of these.
Question 11
As part of the ‘business case management’ technique, how is the business case maintained during the project lifecycle?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. By updating the business case during management stages, as actual costs are incurred
The business case is maintained throughout the project lifecycle by updating it during management stages as actual costs are incurred and progress becomes known. This ensures the business case remains current and continues to justify continued investment based on real project performance. Regular updates during stage gates allow the project board to confirm that the project remains viable against the original investment case.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. While outcomes and benefits should be tracked, the maintenance mechanism is the periodic updating of the business case itself during stages.
- C. A detailed business case at initiation is a starting point, but maintenance requires ongoing updates, not just initial detail.
- D. Justifying initiation is the pre-project phase; maintenance occurs during the project lifecycle.
Question 12
In which step of the ‘issue management’ technique should superseded versions be archived?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Implementing changes
Superseded versions of documentation are archived during the 'implementing changes' step of issue management. Once a change has been approved and implemented, the previous versions of affected products become superseded and are archived to maintain a complete historical record while keeping active versions current. This occurs after the decision to change has been made and during the execution phase.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Deciding on changes is where the decision is made, but archival happens after implementation.
- B. Assessing issues evaluates the problem but does not result in version archival.
- C. Capturing issues records the initial problem statement but does not involve archiving superseded versions.
Question 13
What is used to document the identified threats and opportunities related to the project?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Risk register
A risk register is the document used to record and manage identified threats and opportunities related to a project. It provides a centralized repository for all risk information, including descriptions, impacts, probability, and responses. A risk management approach defines how risks will be managed but is not itself the document recording threats and opportunities. A project plan outlines how the project will be executed but does not specifically document identified risks. A business case justifies the project but does not serve as the primary vehicle for recording individual project threats and opportunities.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Defines the approach and process for managing risks, not the document that records them.
- B. Outlines project execution activities and timelines but is not the specific repository for threats and opportunities.
- D. Justifies the investment in the project but does not document identified threats and opportunities.
Question 14
In which process are the key decisions to control the project made?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Directing a project
Key decisions to control the project are made during Directing a Project. This process encompasses the overall management and steering decisions that keep the project aligned with its objectives and handle major issues and changes.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Controlling a Stage manages day-to-day stage execution, not the key control decisions for the overall project.
- B. Initiating a Project establishes the project foundation, not the ongoing control decisions.
- C. Managing a Stage Boundary addresses transitions between stages, not the primary control decision-making process.
Question 15
Which is the definition of a requirement?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. A need or expectation that is documented in an approved management product
A requirement is formally defined as a documented need or expectation that has been approved and recorded in a management product. This distinguishes it from undocumented wants and ensures requirements are formally controlled.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This describes an issue or event, not a requirement.
- C. This describes a forecast or projection based on trends, not a requirement.
- D. This describes a risk, which is an uncertain event, whereas a requirement is a documented expectation.
Question 16
Which management product should guide the project management team on how to manage multiple aspects of the project?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Project initiation documentation
Project Initiation Documentation (PID) is the baseline management product that brings together all the information needed to guide and manage the project across its multiple aspects, including the project approach, controls, quality, risk, and communication management strategies, organisation, and plans. It is created during the initiation stage and is used throughout the project by the project management team as the definitive reference for how the project is to be managed. It is updated only when significant changes occur. Because it consolidates the various strategies and controls into a single coherent guide, it is the correct product for directing how multiple aspects of the project are managed.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. The project plan addresses timescales, costs, and products but does not consolidate all management aspects such as controls, quality, and risk strategies into one guiding document.
- C. The business case justifies the project's viability and desirability but does not provide guidance on managing the project's various operational aspects.
- D. An exception plan is produced only when a stage or project exceeds tolerance and addresses recovery actions, not overall day-to-day project management guidance.
Question 17
Which TWO are objectives of the ‘starting up a project’ process? 1. To appoint the resources needed to do the work to initiate the project 2. To develop the detailed business case for the project 3. To create a common view of how the required quality will be achieved 4. To ensure that sufficient information is available to define the scope of the project
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. 1 and 4
The objectives of starting up a project include appointing the resources needed to do the work to initiate the project and ensuring that sufficient information is available to define the scope of the project. These preparatory activities establish the foundation for formal project initiation.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2, developing the detailed business case, is an activity of initiating a project, not starting up a project.
- B. Developing the detailed business case belongs to the initiating a project process, and statement 3 relates to quality planning, which also happens during initiation.
- C. Creating a common view of how quality will be achieved belongs to quality planning during initiation, so statement 3 is not an objective of starting up a project.
Question 18
Which statement describes a purpose of the ‘starting up a project’ process?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. To appoint people to the major roles in the project management team
The 'starting up a project' process appoints people to the major roles in the project management team. This foundational activity establishes the core team structure and assigns responsibilities necessary before detailed planning begins.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Providing management control between project manager and team managers is an ongoing process, not a specific purpose of starting up.
- B. Agreeing on progress reporting methods occurs during project initiation planning, not as the primary purpose of starting up.
- C. Providing cost information to suppliers relates to procurement planning, not the primary purpose of starting up a project.
Question 19
How is uncertainty identified, assessed and controlled?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. By applying the risk practice
Uncertainty is identified, assessed, and controlled by applying the risk practice. The risk practice is a structured approach that encompasses identifying risks, analyzing their potential impact, and implementing appropriate controls or responses to manage them.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Avoiding or reducing a threat is a response strategy, not the overall method of identifying, assessing, and controlling uncertainty.
- B. Analyzing the risk cause in detail is part of risk assessment, but not the complete description of how uncertainty is identified, assessed, and controlled.
- D. Allocating a risk budget is one possible risk response, not the comprehensive method for identifying and controlling uncertainty.
Question 20
The project manager needs to know what modifications have been proposed to an approved product during the stage. Which management product should the project manager review?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Issue register
The issue register is the management product that records proposed modifications to approved products during a stage. It documents all issues, including requests for changes to products, allowing the project manager to track what modifications have been proposed and their status.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The risk management approach describes how risks will be managed but does not track specific product modifications.
- B. An issue report describes a single issue in detail but does not provide a consolidated view of all proposed modifications.
- C. The issue management approach outlines the process for handling issues but does not document the actual proposed modifications themselves.
Question 21
Which control is time-driven?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The creation of a highlight report
The creation of a highlight report is a time-driven control that occurs at regular, scheduled intervals (typically monthly or at stage boundaries). It is triggered by the passage of time rather than by specific events or conditions.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Exception reports are event-driven, created when exceptions occur, not at predetermined time intervals.
- B. Completion of the PID is a one-time event at the start of a project, not a recurring time-driven control.
- D. The end of the financial year is a calendar event but not a project management control mechanism in the traditional sense.
Question 22
The benefits management approach has been reviewed by the project board to ensure there are sufficient benefit reviews after the project has closed. Which principle is the project board applying?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Ensure continued business justification
Reviewing benefit management approaches and ensuring benefit reviews occur after project closure directly applies the principle of ensuring continued business justification. This principle requires that benefits realization and project value are monitored beyond the project boundary.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Manage by exception addresses deviation from plans but does not specifically address benefits realization.
- B. Manage by stages relates to stage-based control and authorization during project execution.
- D. Focus on products emphasizes deliverables rather than benefits and value realization.
Question 23
The project manager needs to record what will make the users satisfied with the final product. Where should the project manager record this?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Project product description
The project product description documents what the final product should be and what will make users satisfied with it. This document defines the characteristics, features, and acceptance criteria that will determine user satisfaction. A quality register tracks quality issues and their resolution. A project plan outlines the overall project approach and schedule but does not specifically capture user satisfaction criteria. A quality management approach describes the quality philosophy and standards but is not the document where satisfaction criteria are recorded.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Tracks quality issues and their management, not user satisfaction expectations.
- B. Outlines project execution approach and scheduling but does not record user satisfaction criteria.
- D. Describes quality standards and management processes, not the specific satisfaction requirements for the product.
Question 24
Which plan should be produced depending on the size and complexity of the project?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Stage plan
A stage plan is produced depending on the size and complexity of the project. For larger and more complex projects, planning is broken down into more detailed stage plans rather than relying on a single high-level project plan. This allows for appropriate levels of detail and control at each stage of the project lifecycle.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A project plan is always produced regardless of size; it is not conditional.
- C. Team plans are not the standard answer for adjusting planning based on project complexity.
- D. Exception plans are reactive documents produced only when tolerances are exceeded.
Question 25
In which step of the ‘planning’ technique should a team manager break down the cost of delivering a work package?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Preparing estimates
In the planning technique, the step of preparing estimates is where a team manager breaks down the cost of delivering a work package. This step involves detailed cost analysis and decomposition of expenses associated with the specific work package being delivered.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Organizing work packages involves structuring and dividing the work, not breaking down costs.
- B. Defining and analysing products focuses on what will be delivered, not on cost breakdown.
- D. Preparing a schedule addresses timing and sequencing, not the cost composition of work packages.
Question 26
Why is change management important in a project?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. It provides confidence that the project can meet its objectives and has continued business justification
Change management is important because it provides confidence that the project can meet its objectives and has continued business justification. By controlling changes systematically, organizations ensure that the project remains aligned with business needs and can verify that the project investment continues to be justified.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. While change management does provide processes for requesting changes, this describes the mechanism rather than the strategic importance of change management.
- B. Change management addresses project changes, not organizational culture adaptation over time.
- D. Change management does not primarily focus on bidirectional information flow to influencers; that is a stakeholder management function.
Question 27
Based on a review or lessons reports from previous projects, some proposals have been made on how to apply PRINCE2 Project Management to a project. Which role should be accountable for approving these proposals?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Project board
The project board is accountable for approving how PRINCE2 principles and practices will be tailored and applied to the specific project. Proposals for applying PRINCE2 to the project, including those based on lessons learned, require project board approval.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. The project manager implements the approved approach but does not approve how PRINCE2 itself is applied.
- C. Project assurance provides independent advice but lacks accountability for approving PRINCE2 tailoring decisions.
- D. The business layer is a representation on the project board, not a distinct role with independent approval authority.
Question 28
What is a purpose of the quality practice?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. To identify the user’s expectations and determine now the project will achieve them
The quality practice aims to identify user expectations and determine how the project will achieve them. This establishes quality criteria and ensures the project understands what acceptable looks like from the outset.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Predicting cost and schedule and evaluating benefit cost-benefit is the purpose of business justification, not quality practice.
- B. Reserving off-specifications at the end is not a purpose; off-specifications should be managed proactively.
- C. Planning to deal with defects late in the project contradicts quality practice, which emphasizes preventing defects early.
Question 29
Which should define how information and tools win be used and managed across the project ecosystem?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Digital and data management approach
The digital and data management approach defines how information and tools will be used and managed across the project ecosystem. This approach covers data governance, digital tools, information sharing protocols, and management practices. A quality management approach addresses quality standards and controls. An issue management approach covers how issues will be identified and resolved. A commercial management approach deals with contracts, supplier relationships, and commercial terms.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Focuses on quality standards and controls, not information and digital tool management.
- C. Addresses issue identification and resolution processes, not information and tool management.
- D. Covers contracts and commercial terms, not information and digital tool management.
Question 30
What statement describes now the project manager should ensure effective communication within a project?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Ensure communication is tailored to meet the needs of efferent stakeholders
Effective communication requires tailoring messages, timing, and formats to meet the specific needs of different stakeholder groups. A one-size-fits-all approach does not account for varying information needs and preferences across the project community.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Providing identical information to all stakeholders ignores different communication needs and preferences.
- B. While reporting is important, relying solely on team manager reports is insufficient for comprehensive communication.
- C. Focusing only on key influencers neglects the broader project community and does not ensure comprehensive communication.
That was 30 of 120.
The full PeopleCert PRINCE2 7 Foundation pack has all 120 questions, each with the answer, the explanation and why the other options are wrong, plus a questions-only copy for timed runs. US$39, paid once, with free monthly updates and a pass-or-your-money-back guarantee.
Not ready yet? Get the first 60 free as one PDF by email. Get the Half Pack →