Free PMI CAPM Practice Questions

Question 1

Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?

1. Procurement statement of work (SOW)
2. Procurement strategy
3. Terms of reference
4. Change request

Question 2

A project is just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders.

Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders is correct?

1. The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.
2. Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.
3. The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary priority.
4. Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a secondary priority.

Question 3

Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?

1. Hybrid methodologies
2. Risk register updates
3. Outsourced project resources
4. Reliance on lessons learned documents

Question 4

What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?

1. Earned value management (EVM)
2. Estimate at completion (EAC)
3. Earned value analysis (EVA)
4. Budget at completion (BAC)

Question 5

A business analyst is gathering requirements for version 3 of an existing billing product. Before meeting stakeholders, the analyst wants candidate features from records that already exist. Which source is MOST useful?

1. The project charter written for version 1
2. Logged trouble reports and change requests
3. The risk register from the first build
4. The statement of work for hosting services

Question 6

A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:

1. create the project management plan.
2. identify the project objectives.
3. review and update stakeholder engagement.
4. create the schedule baseline.

Question 7

A new project has been set. Four main stakeholders besides the project manager and four other team members have been identified.

How many communication channels are available?

1. 8
2. 18
3. 36
4. 40

Question 8

A project is approaching user acceptance testing. The sponsor wants evidence that every documented requirement will be checked before sign-off. How should the requirements traceability matrix be used?

1. Link each requirement to the tests that will verify it
2. Replace the test plan with the matrix during testing
3. Record defects found during testing in the matrix
4. List only the requirements changed since the baseline

Question 9

Select three processes that are associated with Project Schedule Management. (Choose three.)

1. Define Activities
2. Plan Resource Management
3. Estimate Activity Durations
4. Develop Schedule
5. Acquire Resources

Question 10

What are the project management processes associated with project quality management?

1. Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Control Quality
2. Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Cost of Quality
3. Manage Quality, Customer Satisfaction, and Control Quality
4. Customer Satisfaction, Control Quality, and Continuous Improvement

Question 11

Two members of the team are having a conflict. The project manager decides that, in this case, the best solution is to bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the problem.

Which technique should the project manager use?

1. Withdraw/Avoid
2. Smooth/Accommodate
3. Compromise/Reconcile
4. Collaborate/Problem Solve

Question 12

A company with a traditional functional hierarchy is running a predictive project that spans engineering, purchasing and finance. Team members stay in their home departments. What should the project manager rely on MOST to integrate the work?

1. Detailed plans, schedules, budgets and regular status reports
2. Informal conversations, since the departments share one building
3. The project manager's direct line authority over every team member
4. A self-organizing team that chooses its own work each week

Question 13

Within each two-week iteration, a team spends the first days on design, the middle days on coding, and the last two days on testing. Stories often fail testing and roll over. What is the MAIN weakness in how the team uses its iterations?

1. The iterations are too short, so they should be lengthened until all testing fits at the end.
2. Each iteration has become a mini-waterfall instead of finishing small increments throughout.
3. The team tests too early, so testing should move to a separate iteration after coding ends.
4. The team lacks a detailed phase schedule, so each phase should be baselined before work begins.

Question 14

Which tasks should a project manager perform in order to manage the project schedule effectively?

1. Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Define Quality of Activities, Develop Schedule
2. Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, Control Schedule
3. Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Estimate Cost of Activities, Develop Schedule
4. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Define Quality of Activities, Estimate Cost of Activities, Develop Schedule

Question 15

A functional manager is delegating a key project to a project team without a project manager.

Which communication method will be most effective?

1. Interactive
2. Push
3. Verbal
4. Oral

Question 16

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

1. Manage Quality
2. Plan Quality Management
3. Control Quality
4. Plan Scope Management

Question 17

Considering a highly dynamic project environment, which approach should the project manager adopt to manage the project team?

1. A self-organizing approach to increase team focus and maximize collaboration
2. A virtual team to minimize feelings of isolation and gaps in sharing knowledge
3. A distributed team to improve tracking progress, productivity, and performance
4. A norming approach that requires team members to adjust their behavior and work together

Question 18

What does an S-curve from a Monte Carlo analysis show?

1. Cumulative probability distribution representing probability of achieving a particular outcome
2. Individual project risks or uncertainties that have the most potential impact on outcome
3. Best alternative out of the possible solutions, incorporating associated risks and opportunities
4. Diagram for all project uncertainties and their influence over a period of time

Question 19

How can a project manager evaluate project team development?

1. Produce team performance assessments
2. Hold weekly meetings to engage every member
3. Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member
4. Provide recognition awards to team members

Question 20

What does earned value (EV) measure?

1. Budgeted work that has been completed
2. Total costs incurred while accomplishing work
3. Budget associated with planned work
4. Cost efficiency of budgeted resources

Question 21

How can a project manager maintain the engagement of stakeholders in a project with a high degree of change?

1. Monitor project stakeholder relationships using engaging strategies and plans
2. Send all project documents to stakeholders each time they are modified
3. Schedule monthly meetings with the stakeholders, including team members
4. Engage only with the project sponsors

Question 22

The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?

1. Acquire Resources
2. Control Resources
3. Manage Team
4. Develop Team

Question 23

Which statement BEST describes an external stakeholder?

1. An outside party affected by or governing the project
2. A person in the organization who is not on the team
3. Any stakeholder who has low power and low interest
4. Any customer who pays for the finished product or service

Question 24

Which of the following sets of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?

1. Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information
2. Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology
3. Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology
4. Glossary of common terminology, constraints derived from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan

Question 25

When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?

1. Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise
2. Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult
3. Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain
4. Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes

Question 26

A schedule network has these finish-to-start activities:

• A: 3 days, no predecessor

• B: 7 days, after A

• C: 2 days, after A

• D: 3 days, after C

• E: 4 days, after B and D

What is the total float of activity D?

1. 0 days
2. 2 days
3. 4 days
4. 12 days

Question 27

What are the two most common contract types used in a project?

1. Cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract and fixed price contract
2. Fixed price contract and cost-reimbursable contract
3. Cost-reimbursable contract and time and material (T&M) contract
4. Time and material (T&M) contract and cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract

Question 28

Which format can a network diagram take?

1. Flow chart
2. Control chart
3. Affinity diagram
4. Cause-and-effect diagram

Question 29

Which contract type is least desirable to a vendor?

1. Fixed price with economic price adjustment (FPEPA)
2. Firm fixed price (FFP)
3. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
4. Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Question 30

A project manager is performing the procurement management process with three vendors. The project team is reviewing the requests for proposal (RFPs).

What type of procurement document is the RFP?

1. Bid document
2. Statement of work (SOW)
3. Source selection criteria
4. Independent cost estimate

Question 31

What is the best tool to calculate the critical path on a project?

1. Critical chain method
2. Graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) diagram
3. Gantt chart
4. Project network diagram

Question 32

A project manager is offered a project that needs contract management experience the project manager does not yet have, and wants the role as a development opportunity. Under the PMI Code of Ethics, what should the project manager do?

1. Accept the role and keep the experience gap private so as not to harm the chance of selection
2. Tell the key stakeholders about the gap so they can make an informed decision on the assignment
3. Decline every assignment that needs any skill the project manager has not already mastered
4. Accept the role and hand all contract decisions to the vendor's account manager to handle

Question 33

Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?

1. When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization
2. When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit
3. When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule
4. When they are from the same unit of the organization

Question 34

A project manager is in the process of working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, and identifying and fostering communication and involvement.

Which process does this typically represent?

1. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
2. Monitor Communications
3. Manage Communications
4. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question 35

A Scrum team agrees that all work must be code-reviewed, tested, and documented, while each story also lists its own conditions, such as refund limits. Which term describes the story-specific conditions?

1. Acceptance criteria for each story
2. The Definition of Done for the team
3. The Sprint Goal for the current Sprint
4. The Product Goal in the Product Backlog

Question 36

The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group.

Which plan should the project manager consult?

1. Risk management plan
2. Communications management plan
3. Change management plan
4. Stakeholder engagement plan

Question 37

A project manager is starting a project very similar to one the organization completed last year. What is the MOST efficient starting point for identifying and prioritizing stakeholders?

1. Review the stakeholder register and lessons learned from the earlier, similar project
2. Wait until execution begins, when stakeholders will make themselves known to the team
3. List only the sponsor for now, because other stakeholders can be added much later on
4. Ask a vendor to share the stakeholder register it used on another client's project

Question 38

When should Project Risk Management be conducted?

1. Project Planning
2. Monitoring and Controlling
3. Quality Planning
4. Throughout the project lifecycle

Question 39

Which statement describes the Monitor Communications process?

1. Evaluates the differences between the communications management plan and the reality of communications in a project
2. Ensures that the information needs of the project and the stakeholders are met
3. Ensures that project information is created, collected, and distributed in a timely and appropriate manner
4. Develops an appropriate approach and plan for communication of project activities

Question 40

Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?

1. Manage Scope
2. Collect Requirements
3. Define Scope
4. Validate Scope

Question 41

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

1. List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk responses
2. List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories
3. Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives
4. List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

Question 42

While preparing for Sprint Planning, the Scrum Team finds that the top Product Backlog item is too large to be completed within one Sprint. What should happen to the item?

1. Extend the next Sprint so the item fits
2. Refine it into smaller items that fit a Sprint
3. Start it now and carry the rest into later Sprints
4. Remove it from the Product Backlog entirely

Question 43

A project team submits a weekly progress report to the project manager. The project manager consolidates the same report and sends a complete progress report to the stakeholders.

What is this an example of?

1. Informal communication
2. Internal communication
3. Formal communication
4. Horizontal communication

Question 44

The project team is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods.

What is the team trying to address?

1. Co-location
2. Lifecycle
3. Diversity
4. Management

Question 45

Company A has just been notified about a new legal requirement for its business operations.

What is the classification of this item?

1. Internal enterprise environmental factor
2. Risk register database
3. External enterprise environmental factor
4. Organizational process asset

Question 46

Project managers play a key role in performing integration on a project.

What are the three different levels of integration?

1. Process, cognitive, and context
2. Complexity, understand, and change
3. Interact, insight, and leadership
4. Communication, knowledge, and value

Question 47

Which of the following describes the similarities of the process groups and project life cycle?

1. The life cycle involves three project management process groups
2. Both provide a basic framework to manage the project
3. Each project must have a life cycle and all processes in the five process groups
4. The project life cycle is managed by executing the processes within the five process groups

Question 48

A project manager is experiencing a project with a high degree of change.

Which type of stakeholder engagement does this project require?

1. Discussing with management
2. Escalating to the sponsors
3. Engaging regularly with stakeholders
4. Engaging only with decision makers

Question 49

How can a project manager determine if the project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures?

1. Look at the quality metrics
2. Validate the scope
3. Review the quality checklist
4. Conduct a quality audit

Question 50

A product owner decides that an internal prototype needs only basic features, while the customer release must have the full feature set. Each version must still meet the requirements set for it. Which concept does this decision describe?

1. Grade
2. Quality
3. Scope creep
4. Gold plating

Question 51

A business analyst is sorting the stakeholder register into internal and external stakeholders. Which list contains ONLY internal stakeholders?

1. Vendors, regulators, and labor unions
2. Sponsor, finance head, and suppliers
3. Business partners, sponsor, and regulators
4. Sponsor, finance head, and department heads

Question 52

In a functional organization, the director of an important stakeholder business group expressed concern to a line manager about the progress of the project.

What should the line manager do next?

1. Hold a face-to-face meeting with the project manager and warn them
2. Point the director to a link where they can take a look at the reports
3. Invite stakeholders to attend monthly progress review meetings
4. Ask the project manager to update the monthly status report distribution list

Question 53

In which sphere of influence is the project manager demonstrating the value of project management and advancing the efficacy of the project management office (PMO)?

1. The organization
2. The project
3. The industry
4. The product

Question 54

A project team is discussing an upcoming planned product launch of a highly visible technologically advanced artificial intelligence tool. The team is debating the aspect of iterative and hybrid approaches.

Which aspect of tailoring would this best represent?

1. Life cycle approaches
2. Resource availability
3. Project dimensions
4. Technology support

Question 55

Which task will a project manager undertake while conducting Project Resource Management?

1. Identify the different aspects of the team to manage and control physical resources efficiently
2. Negotiate and award contracts with external vendors
3. Review and approve change requests to the scope baseline
4. Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member

Question 56

Users of a planned self-service kiosk struggle to describe what they want on screen and keep saying they will know it when they see it. What should the business analyst do NEXT to elicit their requirements?

1. Ask the users to sign off a written specification
2. Send a survey listing possible screen features
3. Build a simple paper prototype for users to try
4. Wait for the first release and gather feedback

Question 57

One of the outputs of the project schedule is a detailed plan.

What is the main purpose of that detailed plan?

1. It represents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope
2. It creates a formal record of the project and shows the organizational commitment to the project
3. It describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated
4. It provides the needs of a stakeholder or stakeholder group

Question 58

Which factors should be considered for cross-cultural communication?

1. Background, personality, and communications management plan
2. Personality, background, and escalation process
3. Sponsor relationship, personality, and background
4. Current emotional state, personality, and background

Question 59

During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?

1. Estimate Costs
2. Control Schedule
3. Determine Budget
4. Develop Project Charter

Question 60

Given the following information:

• Activity A takes one week.

• Activity B takes three weeks.

• Activity C takes two weeks.

• Activity D takes five weeks.

• Activity A starts at the same time as Activity B.

• Activity C follows Activity B and Activity A.

• Activity D follows Activity C.

How long will it take to complete the project?

1. 8 weeks
2. 9 weeks
3. 10 weeks
4. 11 weeks

Question 61

A project manager is analyzing a few network diagrams in order to determine the minimum duration of a project.

Which diagram should the project manager reference?

1. A diagram in which resource optimization has been applied.
2. A diagram in which the critical path method has been applied.
3. A diagram in which a predefined series of activities has been organized.
4. A diagram which shows a combination of resource and time optimization.

Question 62

A business analyst is documenting how call center agents will process a refund in a new system. Stakeholders need the main flow, alternate flows, exception handling, and the conditions before and after the refund. Which requirements format BEST fits this need?

1. A user story card with a short narrative and value
2. A context diagram of the system and outside parties
3. A detailed use case with alternate and exception paths
4. A product roadmap that groups refund features by release

Question 63

Which is a major component of an agreement?

1. Change request handling
2. Risk register templates
3. Lessons learned register
4. Procurement management plan

Question 64

Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?

1. Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources
2. Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system
3. Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements
4. Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge

Question 65

Which type of project life cycle uses an iteration plan?

1. Agile
2. Predictive
3. Waterfall
4. Product

Question 66

For which kind of quantitative risk analysis chart can a tornado diagram represent values?

1. Sensitivity analysis
2. Monte Carlo analysis
3. Expected monetary value analysis
4. Decision tree analysis

Question 67

Which is an example of analogous estimating?

1. Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.
2. Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.
3. Estimates are created by analyzing data.
4. Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.

Question 68

Which are the competing constraints that a project manager should address when tailoring a project?

1. Cost, scope, schedule
2. Sponsorship, risk, quality
3. Schedule, sponsorship, scope
4. Resources, quality, communication

Question 69

Why is tailoring required in a project?

1. Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time
2. Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required
3. Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project
4. Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so tailoring is not required

Question 70

Which of the following can a project manager use to represent defined team member roles in a group of tasks?

1. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
2. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
3. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
4. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

Question 71

The activity of tailoring is necessary because:

1. the members of the project team need to select the appropriate order of every tool, technique, input, and output listed in the PMBOK Guide; this is required for all projects.
2. each project is unique, and the members of the project team should select the appropriate tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs from the PMBOK Guide.
3. the members of the project team need to understand the PMBOK Guide processes, which are applied to all projects.
4. each project is unique, and the project team must plan how to apply all the tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs in the PMBOK Guide.

Question 72

All requirements in a traceability matrix are tested and accepted, but its implementation column shows that production security profiles and data conversion are not yet set up. What should the project team conclude?

1. The product is ready, since testing is complete
2. The solution is not yet ready for production
3. The implementation column is optional detail
4. Security can be configured after go-live

Question 73

What is the project manager's responsibility in Project Integration Management?

1. Ensuring that requirements-related work is clarified in the project management plan
2. Investing sufficient effort in acquiring, managing, motivating, and empowering the project team
3. Combining the results in all other knowledge areas and overseeing the project as a whole
4. Developing a strategy to ensure effective stakeholder communication

Question 74

Midway through a project that uses an adaptive approach, a key customer asks for a new feature that would make the product more competitive. How should the team treat the request?

1. Reject it, because the requirements were frozen and approved when the project started
2. Defer any discussion of it until the entire product has been delivered
3. Welcome it as a backlog item ordered with the product owner for a future iteration
4. Discard the completed work and replan the whole project from the beginning

Question 75

In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?

1. A group of quality experts at specific times during the project
2. The project manager only
3. All team members throughout the project life cycle
4. Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project

Question 76

Which of the following conditions should the project manager consider when working on the scheduling for an adaptive environment?

1. Defining, sequencing, estimating activity durations, and developing a schedule model are so tightly linked that they are viewed as a single process.
2. The detailed project schedule should remain flexible throughout the project to accommodate newly gained knowledge.
3. Iterative scheduling and on-demand, pull-based scheduling will be required.
4. To address the full delivery schedule, a range of techniques may be needed and then need to be adapted.

Question 77

A project manager is working in an environment where requirements are not very clear and may change during the project. In addition, the project has several stakeholders and is technically complex.

Which strategies should the project manager take into account for risk management in this environment?

1. Occasionally identify, evaluate, and classify risks
2. Review requirements and cross-functional project teams
3. Include contingency reserves and update the project management plan frequently
4. Frequently review incremental work products and update the requirements for proper prioritization

Question 78

A company runs several related projects, including a new billing system and staff retraining, and coordinates them so that the organization collects cash faster. What PRIMARILY distinguishes this program from each individual project within it?

1. The program focuses on realizing benefits, while each project focuses on a defined output.
2. The program delivers the outputs itself, while each project only tracks the benefits.
3. The program is simply a larger project with more team members and a longer schedule.
4. The program selects and ranks initiatives across the whole organization based on available funding.

Question 79

A project manager can choose from several techniques to resolve conflicts between team members.

Which technique can result in a win-win situation?

1. Collaborate/Problem Solve
2. Compromise/Reconcile
3. Smooth/Accommodate
4. Withdraw/Avoid

Question 80

The project manager is working in the processes of Project Resource Management.

Which process is the project manager developing if they are using parametric estimation?

1. Plan Resource Management
2. Estimate Activity Resources
3. Estimate Costs
4. Acquire Resources

Question 81

In a preliminary meeting for a project, team members decide to execute the project with agile methodology. A finance team member wants to know how project cost will be determined at this early stage.

How will the project team determine project cost?

1. Use a lightweight cost estimation due to the nature of agile projects
2. Use a detailed cost estimation for agile projects
3. Retrieve a budget from a previous project and create a baseline for this project based on it
4. Use a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS) to get cost estimation

Question 82

What process is included in Project Integration Management?

1. Monitor and Control Project Work
2. Control Scope
3. Control Schedule
4. Develop Team

Question 83

A project has 40 identified stakeholders. The business analyst is deciding whether every stakeholder must take part in every requirements review across all phases. What does stakeholder analysis suggest?

1. Invite all stakeholders to every review for fairness
2. Involve only the sponsor and inform the rest later
3. Define who participates in which phase and activity
4. Let each stakeholder choose which reviews to attend

Question 84

Market conditions shift, so a program manager cancels one planned project and starts a different one to increase the benefits the program will deliver. Which difference between programs and projects does this decision reflect?

1. Projects welcome scope change at any time, while programs try hard to avoid every kind of change.
2. Programs adjust components to maximize benefits, while projects minimize unnecessary change.
3. Programs and projects handle change in exactly the same way.
4. Only portfolio managers may start projects, so the program manager exceeded the role.

Question 85

A control account covers work that starts in nine months, and its details are not yet known. The team has budgeted it but cannot define its tasks. How should this work be represented now?

1. As a planning package that is later converted into work packages
2. As a work package with estimated tasks, to be corrected later
3. As management reserve held outside the performance baseline
4. As an open issue in the issue log until the details are known

Question 86

Which statement describes the relationship between Manage Quality process and Control Quality process?

1. Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and procedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.
2. Control Quality is all about following planned processes and procedures for quality, while Manage Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.
3. Manage Quality and Control Quality are the same.
4. Manage Quality is part of Quality Management and Control Quality is a subset of the Stakeholder Management Process group.

Question 87

What are the objectives of initiation processes?

1. Initiation processes are performed in order to develop the project charter and identify stakeholders.
2. Initiation processes are performed in order to obtain budget approval for a project or phase and approve scope with customers.
3. Initiation processes are performed to identify business objectives for a project or phase and identify stakeholders' goals.
4. Initiation processes are performed to map initial requirements for a project or phase and prioritize them with stakeholders.

Question 88

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

1. Project scope
2. Product scope
3. Change request
4. Acceptance criteria

Question 89

A project manager has just completed several brainstorming sessions and has gathered the data to show commonality and differences in one single place.

What technique was followed?

1. Collective decision making
2. Multicriteria decision analysis
3. Mind mapping
4. Affinity diagram

Question 90

Midway through a Sprint, a market change makes the Sprint Goal obsolete. A department head tells the Scrum Master to stop the Sprint at once. According to the Scrum Guide, who has the authority to cancel the Sprint?

1. The Scrum Master
2. The Developers, by team vote
3. The department head, as a key stakeholder
4. The Product Owner

Question 91

The risk response plan for a critical supplier states that if a delivery is more than five days late, the team will switch to a pre-qualified backup supplier. A delivery is now seven days late. What should the project manager do?

1. Wait another week in case the delivery arrives, then begin assessing the risk again
2. Execute the planned response and switch to the pre-qualified backup supplier
3. Start a fresh risk identification workshop before taking any action on the delivery
4. Report the delay to the sponsor and take no further action until the next phase gate

Question 92

The features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result can refer to:

1. project scope
2. product scope
3. service scope
4. product breakdown structure

Question 93

A customer sees a product roadmap showing a reporting module in the third quarter. When the module moves to the fourth quarter, the customer complains that the team broke its promise. How should the roadmap be understood?

1. As a contract that fixes the delivery date of each feature
2. As a detailed schedule of every task the team will do
3. As a communication tool showing likely deliverables
4. As a list of approved changes from change control

Question 94

A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.

Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?

1. An accepted deliverable is approved by the project team; a verified deliverable is approved and formally signed off by the customer or sponsor.
2. An accepted deliverable has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor.
3. An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor; a verified deliverable is a completed project deliverable that has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process.
4. An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the project manager; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the customer or sponsor.

Question 95

A sponsor asks what the project management plan provides that the product requirements document does not. Which answer is BEST?

1. A natural-language description of the services the product must deliver to users
2. A detailed functional description written for the designers who will build the system
3. A set of marketing messages for promoting the finished product to future customers
4. A road map of project activities and a baseline from which to gauge project progress

Question 96

Midway through a release, the product owner adds several new stories to the scope. The sponsor wants one chart that shows completed work and the total scope target together, so that scope growth stays visible. Which artifact should the team use?

1. A burndown chart of the story points still remaining
2. A task board showing each card by workflow state
3. A burnup chart of completed points against total scope
4. A velocity chart of the points finished in each iteration

Question 97

What important leadership qualities should a project manager possess?

1. Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management
2. Skills and behaviors needed to guide a team and help an organization reach its goals
3. Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes
4. Industry and organizational expertise that enhances performance

Question 98

The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan.

Which elements may be included in this plan?

1. Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process
2. Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules
3. Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan
4. Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments

Question 99

The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required.

In which process is the project manager involved?

1. Monitor Communications
2. Plan Communications Management
3. Manage Communications
4. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question 100

When developing the project schedule, a project manager uses decomposition and rolling wave planning techniques in this process:

1. Develop Schedule
2. Define Activities
3. Define Scope
4. Collect Requirements

Question 101

A project will change how warehouse staff pick and pack orders. Early in planning, several supervisors raise concerns about the new process. What should the project manager do?

1. Engage the supervisors early, since involvement builds buy-in and may improve the change.
2. Treat the concerns as purely negative and exclude the supervisors from all further planning.
3. Hold back all communication about the change until the new process goes live.
4. Ask the sponsor to overrule the supervisors so the plan can stay unchanged.

Question 102

A quality management plan requires inspectors to test 50 randomly selected units from each batch of 2,000 rather than every unit. What is the basis for this approach?

1. Statistical sampling, whose inferences can match 100% inspection
2. Prevention, because testing fewer units keeps defects from occurring
3. Benchmarking, because other plants test the same number
4. Grade, because a lower grade allows fewer inspections

Question 103

Which knowledge area includes the processes to identify, define, and unify the various project management processes?

1. Project Integration Management
2. Project Communications Management
3. Project Quality Management
4. Project Risk Management

Question 104

During what project management process does the project team begin identifying risks?

1. Initiating
2. Planning
3. Executing
4. Monitoring and Controlling

Question 105

A factory produces the same model of water pump every day on a fixed assembly line. The company is also running an effort to design a new pump model. Why is the daily production classified as operations?

1. It is ongoing, repetitive work producing many identical units with no planned end.
2. It uses machines and materials, while projects rely only on people and their skills.
3. It is run by a factory supervisor, while projects are always run by their sponsors.
4. It costs more each year than the design effort, so it cannot be treated as a project.

Question 106

What organizational asset can influence the Plan Risk Management process?

1. Corporate policies and procedures for social media, ethics, and security
2. Organizational risk policy
3. Stakeholder register templates and instructions
4. Organizational communication requirements

Question 107

Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?

1. Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks.
2. Avoid all kinds of risks.
3. Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks.
4. Identify positive and negative risks.

Question 108

A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management.

Which statement would the project manager use to describe the importance of creating the project management office?

1. It will give the project manager independence to make decisions without other departmental input.
2. It integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.
3. The project management office can execute administrative tasks.
4. The project management office can coordinate projects.

Question 109

A team member learns that a supplier may offer a 15% discount if the order is placed early, which would reduce project costs. The discount is not yet confirmed. How should the project manager handle this?

1. Record it in the risk register as an opportunity, with an owner and a response
2. Record it in the issue log, because it is already affecting the project
3. Ignore it, because the risk register records only threats
4. Add the savings to the cost baseline as if they were confirmed

Question 110

How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?

1. Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknown risks
2. Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios
3. Additional duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted
4. Milestones representing the completion of deliverables

Question 111

If you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?

1. Accepting
2. Transferring
3. Avoiding
4. Mitigating

Question 112

What is the role of project management in terms of organizational strategy?

1. Project management aligns initiatives, prioritizes work, and provides resources
2. Project management provides the strategic vision for an organization to achieve its goals
3. Project management enables the achievement of organizational goals and objectives
4. Project management harmonizes components and controls interdependencies to realize specific benefits

Question 113

Midway through a predictive project, a series of approved changes means the team can no longer deliver what the charter promised, and the budget ceiling will be exceeded. What should the project manager do with the project charter?

1. Leave it unchanged, since a charter is used only during initiation
2. Revisit it with the sponsor and revise it if needed
3. Replace it with the updated project management plan
4. Issue a new charter automatically at every phase gate

Question 114

What statement describes the function or responsibility of a project manager?

1. Approves the project charter and provides the funding for the project
2. Seeks ways to develop relationships that assist the team in achieving organizational goals and objectives
3. Ensures that the project's business operations are efficient
4. Provides management oversight for a project's functional or business units

Question 115

A business analyst has just joined a project to replace a legacy scheduling tool. Before any formal requirements gathering sessions with end users, what should the business analyst do FIRST?

1. Send a feature wish-list survey to every end user group
2. Discuss business context and goals with the sponsor
3. Run a prototype demonstration with experienced users
4. Set up the columns of the requirements traceability matrix

Question 116

Which of the following is used to classify stakeholders based on their assessments of power, urgency, and legitimacy?

1. Power interest grid
2. Stakeholder cube
3. Salience model
4. Directions of influence

Question 117

Which is the main benefit of managing and tailoring strategies in the Stakeholder Engagement process?

1. Increased support and minimized resistance from stakeholders
2. Increased performance of the project team
3. Maintenance of stakeholder satisfaction because costs and scope are under control
4. Updated project documents, as requested by stakeholders

Question 118

A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase.

What is the project manager's key responsibility during this phase?

1. Defining the scope of the project
2. Building a collaborative environment
3. Creating a detailed project management plan
4. Directing the delivery of the project

Question 119

A project manager is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management, and is clarifying and resolving previously identified issues. In which process is the project manager engaged?

1. Identify Stakeholders
2. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
3. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
4. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

Question 120

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:

1. requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.
2. WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.
3. business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.
4. issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, verified deliverables, and quality reports.

Question 121

During iteration planning, developers find a story with no acceptance criteria and argue about what it should do. Which practice would MOST likely have kept this story out of planning?

1. A longer daily coordination meeting
2. A definition of ready for stories
3. A higher team velocity target
4. A detailed lessons learned review

Question 122

A product owner is preparing the Product Backlog and wants size estimates on the top items so the team can forecast. In Scrum, who is responsible for sizing Product Backlog items?

1. The Product Owner who orders the backlog
2. The Scrum Master who facilitates refinement
3. The stakeholders who requested each item
4. The Developers who will do the work

Question 123

An important project stakeholder has low risk tolerance.

Which type of communication should a project manager use to provide this stakeholder with a difficult update?

1. Informal conversation
2. Face-to-face meeting
3. Short email update
4. Written report

Question 124

What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?

1. Cultural influences
2. Physical environmental elements
3. Commercial databases
4. Infrastructure

Question 125

In agile projects while performing scope management, what is the definition of requirements?

1. Metrics
2. Sprint
3. Charter
4. Backlog

Question 126

Two department heads refuse to release the specialists the project needs, and the project manager's own attempts to resolve the dispute have failed. Whose role is it to resolve this kind of conflict?

1. The project sponsor, who resolves conflicts that require senior management involvement
2. The project manager alone, who must keep working on it without involving anyone senior
3. The project team, who should vote on which department ought to release its specialists first
4. The specialists themselves, who should decide which department's work deserves priority

Question 127

While identifying stakeholders for a new product launch, a business analyst meets the purchasing and legal departments even though neither will use the product. Why is this useful?

1. They may reveal suppliers and regulators
2. They approve each of the product features
3. They replace the need for end users
4. They set the project's final deadline

Question 128

A project manager proposes spending more on design reviews and team training early, instead of relying on a large inspection effort just before delivery. Which quality principle supports this proposal?

1. Quality is achieved mainly by inspecting every finished item before release.
2. Quality costs are limited to the failures that customers find after delivery.
3. Quality must be designed in, because prevention lowers costly failures later.
4. Quality work belongs to the operations team after the project closes.

Question 129

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

1. Estimate Activity Durations
2. Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
3. Direct and Manage Project Work
4. Estimate Activity Resources