70 free ISTQB CTFL v4.0 practice questions from the CertStash pack of 278, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. The rule is the same for every exam: ten free on the product page, 70 free here, all 278 in the pack, and each step includes the one before it.
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Question 1
What is one potential benefit of using a test automation tool?
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Correct answer: B. Ease of access to statistics about test progress
A test automation tool executes tests and records what happened, so the numbers needed to report progress, tests run, passed, failed, and coverage achieved, fall out of the tool as a by-product. That easy access to objective statistics about test progress is one of the standard benefits of automation.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Automation changes how tests are run, not how well defects are written up. The quality of a defect report depends on the person raising it.
- C. Automation adds artifacts such as scripts, test data, and results, so it consumes more storage rather than removing the need to version test artifacts.
- D. Network traffic is a property of the system under test and how it is deployed. Automating the tests does not reduce it, and running more tests may increase it.
Question 2
Which of the following is a benefit of early stakeholder feedback?
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Correct answer: C. The developers get a better understanding of what they are building
Feedback gathered early tells the team whether what is being built is what is actually wanted, while there is still time to act on it. The direct benefit is that developers understand the product they are building, so misunderstandings are corrected before they are coded rather than after.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Waiting until the product is in production to act on the feedback removes the whole advantage of gathering it early, because changes then cost far more.
- B. Helping a project manager anticipate changes for a future version is a side effect at best. The point of early feedback is to correct the current work.
- D. Test automation requirements are a technical concern for the test team. Stakeholder feedback is about the product's behaviour and value.
Question 3
Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies regardless of the specific software development lifecycle being used?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Ensuring there is a corresponding testing activity for every software development activity
Whatever lifecycle is in use, one practice always holds: every development activity has a corresponding testing activity. That is what keeps testing in step with development instead of arriving at the end, and it applies equally to sequential, iterative, and incremental models.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Stand-up meetings belong to particular Agile practices. A sequential project may hold no stand-ups at all.
- B. The right level of test case documentation depends on the context, and detailed step-by-step scripting is often inappropriate in a fast-moving iterative project.
- D. Acceptance criteria are an Agile artifact tied to user stories. They are not present in every lifecycle.
Question 4
In an Agile development model, the completion of testing or “done” is defined by which of the following?
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Correct answer: C. Exit criteria
In Agile development, what counts as done is captured as a set of conditions the work must satisfy before it can be considered complete. Those conditions are exit criteria, also known as the definition of done, and testing is complete when they are met.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Project management may agree the criteria but does not itself define completion. The criteria do.
- B. Entry criteria say when testing can start, such as a stable build being available. They say nothing about when it is finished.
- D. An expected completion date is a plan. Reaching a date does not mean the work satisfies the conditions for being done.
Question 5
You are testing web application software that allows a person to use their travel points to make flight and hotel reservations.
When the user logs into the software (username/password) they are presented with a set of options. From that set of options, they can pick the following:
1. View points balance
2. Make flight reservation
3. Make hotel reservation
From the login page, they can log in successfully or might fail and need to try again. Once they login successfully they can go to either the view points, flight reservation or hotel reservation page.
Which of the following is the correct list of the transitions (a transition is shown as >) that should be tested, assuming that the test ends when a reservation state is reached.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Login > Login, Login > Points, Login > Flight, Login > Hotel, Points > Flight, Points > Hotel
The states are Login, Points, Flight, and Hotel, and testing stops once a reservation state is reached. From Login the user can fail and return to Login, or succeed and reach Points, Flight, or Hotel. From Points the user can then go on to Flight or Hotel. That gives Login to Login, Login to Points, Login to Flight, Login to Hotel, Points to Flight, and Points to Hotel, which is exactly the list in option C.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Points to Reservation names a state that does not exist and misses every other transition in the model.
- B. This omits the failed login self-transition and the two transitions from Login straight to a reservation page.
- D. Flight to Hotel, Hotel to Flight, Flight to Login, and Hotel to Login all continue past a reservation state, and the test is defined to end there.
Question 6
Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?
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Correct answer: A. Any person in the team with the right skills can perform any task
In the whole team approach the team as a whole owns quality, and work is pulled by whoever has the skills to do it rather than pushed to a named specialist. Anyone with the right skills being able to take on any task is what gives the approach its flexibility and removes handover delays.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Locking a task to one owner until completion is the opposite of the whole team approach and reintroduces the bottleneck it removes.
- C. Under this approach quality is owned by the whole team. Giving testers exclusive ownership of quality is the traditional model it replaces.
- D. Business representatives are part of the whole team, not excluded from it. Their involvement throughout is a defining feature.
Question 7
If you are using test results to learn more about the software and are then creating additional tests based on those results, what type of testing are you doing?
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Correct answer: A. Exploratory
Learning about the software from the results of the tests just run, and using that learning to design the next tests, is the defining loop of exploratory testing. Test design, execution, and learning happen together rather than design being completed before execution starts.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Decision-based is not a recognised test technique name in the syllabus. Decision testing is a white-box coverage measure, designed from the code rather than from prior results.
- C. Checklist-based testing works from a prepared list of items to cover. The list is written before execution and is not derived from results as they arrive.
- D. Control flow analysis is a static, white-box activity performed on the code structure, not a way of designing tests from execution results.
Question 8
You are working on calculating the estimation for a project. You have been given the following numbers by your manager, who is considered to be an expert in estimation:
• Optimistic = 35 days
• Likely = 40 days
• Pessimistic = 65 days
Apply the three-point estimation technique, what is the proper expression of the final estimate?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. E is 43.3 days, SD = 5
The three-point technique weights the most likely estimate four times as heavily as the optimistic and pessimistic ones. E equals the optimistic plus four times the likely plus the pessimistic, all divided by six, which is 35 plus 160 plus 65 over 6, giving 43.3 days. The standard deviation is the pessimistic minus the optimistic divided by six, which is 65 minus 35 over 6, giving 5.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The estimate of 46.3 does not follow from the formula, and a standard deviation of 35 is simply the optimistic figure repeated.
- B. 40 days is the most likely value used unchanged, which ignores the long pessimistic tail the technique exists to account for.
- C. This swaps the two results, quoting a standard deviation larger than the estimate itself.
Question 9
Which black-box technique should be used to verify different responses of the system, depending on its current conditions or previous history?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. State transition testing
When the response to the same input depends on what has happened before, the system has states, and the technique for that is state transition testing. It models the states, the events that cause transitions between them, and the resulting actions, so tests can cover the behaviour that history determines.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Use case testing derives tests from the interactions between an actor and the system for a given goal. It does not model the effect of previous history on the response.
- B. Decision table testing handles combinations of conditions that hold at one moment. It has no notion of what happened before.
- D. Equivalence partitioning divides an input domain into classes expected to be handled alike. It does not consider prior state at all.
Question 10
An agile software development organization has recently hired a senior tester. The organization has distributed teams spread across time zones.
They need to share test status with various stakeholders including upper management and customers at a regular interval.
Which of the following statements seems to be correct with regards to the communication?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work better.
The team is distributed across time zones and the audience includes upper management and customers who need the status at a regular interval. Email suits that situation, because it does not require anyone to be available at a particular hour, it reaches an audience outside the team, and it leaves a record that can be referred back to.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Face-to-face delivery cannot be arranged reliably across time zones, and insisting on it would delay the report to whoever is asleep.
- B. The requirement is explicitly for a regular interval, so communication without a defined frequency does not meet it.
- D. Agile projects still report status. Preferring working software over documentation does not mean stakeholders go uninformed.
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Cert Stash CTFL Foundation v4.0 practice questions were simple but accurate. They kept me on track and improved my understanding before the test.
Question 11
Which of the following is the BEST example of whole team approach?
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Correct answer: C. Testing is the responsibility of the entire team
The defining idea of the whole team approach is that quality is not one role's problem. Everyone on the team, whatever their specialism, shares responsibility for testing and for the quality of what the team delivers.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Anyone being able to take on a task they are capable of is a consequence of the approach rather than the best description of it.
- B. Co-location helps but is not required. Distributed teams practise the whole team approach successfully.
- D. The approach does not remove the distinction between roles, and it certainly does not make developers dependent on business analysts.
Question 12
Which of the following is a methodical approach to error guessing?
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Correct answer: A. Create a list of possible failures and defects and design tests to address each one
Error guessing becomes methodical when the tester's experience is captured as a written list of the errors, defects, and failures that have occurred or are considered likely, and tests are then designed to address each entry. The list turns individual intuition into something repeatable and reviewable.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Asking developers where the defects are is useful input, but an ad hoc conversation is not a method, and it depends on developers already knowing.
- C. Targeting high-complexity areas identified from the code is a white-box, structure-based approach rather than error guessing.
- D. Designing tests to address all the decisions in the code is decision coverage, a white-box technique.
Question 13
For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running these tests with a test automation tool?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced
For a given fixed set of test cases, what automation changes is the effort of running them. The machine performs the repetitive steps, so the time people spend on repetition falls and they are freed for work that needs judgement.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The set of test cases is fixed, so the coverage they achieve is fixed too. Automation runs the same tests, it does not add new ones.
- C. Automating the same tests does not reduce the number of defects they find. If anything it lets them run more often.
- D. Automation carries development and maintenance costs, so the total cost of a project does not always fall. Whether it does depends on how often the tests are re-run.
Question 14
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item.
Acceptance criteria define the conditions a story must satisfy to be accepted, and they can be as specific as the story needs. Describing a data item's format, its allowed values, and its default value is a legitimate and common form of acceptance criterion, because it removes ambiguity about what the implementation must handle.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. User acceptance tests are often manual, since they are about users confirming the system meets their needs in a realistic setting.
- C. Negative scenarios belong in acceptance criteria too. A story that only says what should happen when everything goes right is incompletely specified.
- D. Tests derived from acceptance criteria sit in quadrant Q2, which is business facing and supports the team.
Question 15
During which activity in the review process are the quality characteristics selected for evaluation?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Planning
The review process runs through planning, review initiation, individual review, communication and analysis, and fixing and reporting. Planning is where the scope is defined, and that includes deciding which quality characteristics the work product will be evaluated against, along with the effort and timeframe.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Review initiation is where the work product and materials are distributed and participants are briefed. The scope has already been set.
- C. Analysis is where the issues found by individual reviewers are discussed and their severity decided, which happens after evaluation.
- D. Fixing is where defects are repaired and the work product is updated, at the end of the process.
Question 16
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about White-box testing?
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Correct answer: C. White-box testing helps find defects even when specifications are vague because it takes into account the code
White-box testing works from the code itself, so it does not depend on having a complete or unambiguous specification. When the requirements are vague, the structure of the implementation still provides an objective basis for designing tests and measuring what has been exercised.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Measuring statement coverage tells you how much of the code has been run. Coverage is a measure, not the mechanism by which defects are found.
- B. White-box testing is dynamic testing, so it finds failures when the code is executed, just as black-box testing does.
- D. Requirements-based coverage is what black-box techniques provide, since they derive tests from the specification.
Question 17
Which of the following is LEAST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a testing role?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Create test completion report
This question asks which task is least likely to belong to a testing role. Evaluating the test basis and test object, assessing testability, and defining what the test environment must provide are all analysis and preparation work a tester does. Producing the test completion report is a test management responsibility, since it summarises the whole effort and supports the release decision.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Evaluating the test basis and the test object is core test analysis work.
- C. Defining what the test environment must provide is normal tester preparation.
- D. Assessing the testability of the test object is also a standard tester task.
Question 18
You are using boundary value analysis to determine your test data.
What values should you use to test a routine that requires an integer input (x) to be greater than zero and less than 100 to achieve 100% minimum coverage using the two-point boundary value analysis technique?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 0, 1, 99, 100
The valid partition for x greater than zero and less than 100 is the integers 1 to 99, so its boundaries are 1 and 99. In two-value boundary value analysis each boundary contributes two coverage items, the boundary value itself and its nearest neighbour in the adjacent partition. That gives 0 and 1 at the lower boundary and 99 and 100 at the upper, so the minimum set for 100 percent coverage is 0, 1, 99, 100.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. 0 and 100 are only the outside halves of each pair. Without 1 and 99 the boundary values themselves are never exercised.
- B. This set treats 0 and 100 as if they were outside the region of interest and reaches for -1 and 101, which are not adjacent to the boundaries.
- D. Six values is the three-value variant, which adds the neighbours on both sides of each boundary. The question asks for the two-value technique.
Question 19
Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:
[I]. It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads.
[II]. A user's session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity (configured by the system administrator) of the user.
[III]. The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin according to the test plan.
[IV]. Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation and some data becomes corrupted.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. [II] and [IV] are product risks; [I] and [III] are project risks.
A product risk concerns the product itself failing to satisfy a need, while a project risk concerns the management and execution of the project. A session that is not invalidated after inactivity, item II, and data corrupted after a failure, item IV, are defects in the product. Load injectors too weak to generate the workload, item I, and a requirements specification not ready when analysis is due to start, item III, are project risks.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Item III is about the specification not being ready on time, which is a project risk rather than a product risk.
- C. Item I is inadequate test equipment, which is a project risk, and item II is a product weakness rather than a project one.
- D. This classifies three project and product items together and calls the data corruption a project risk, which reverses its nature.
Question 20
You are a test manager responsible for implementing risk-based testing in your organization which deals with software in the healthcare domain.
You are writing a handbook of various product risk mitigation options.
Which ONE of the following options correctly represent the correct mitigation options?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Selecting a tester with required knowledge related to compliance and standards
In a healthcare organization, compliance with standards and regulation is a major source of product risk, and the way to mitigate it is to make sure the people doing the testing actually know those standards. Selecting a tester with the required knowledge of compliance and standards directly reduces the chance that a compliance defect goes unnoticed.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Choosing an automated unit testing tool is a tool decision. A tool by itself does not reduce a product risk until tests are designed and run.
- B. Using a third-party testing company does not transfer the product risk. If the software fails in the field, the consequences still fall on the organization that released it.
- D. Adding testers adds capacity, but it does not mean all risks are covered and it does not address any specific risk.
Question 21
Which of the following is a technique that can be used to develop user stories in collaboration with the developers and business?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Brainstorming
Brainstorming is a collaboration technique, and in the three amigos style of story writing it brings business, development, and test together to shape a story and its acceptance criteria. It is the only option here that is a way of working with people rather than a technical practice.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. DevOps is an approach to integrating development and operations. It does not describe how a story is written.
- B. Continuous integration and continuous delivery are build and deployment practices, unrelated to eliciting stories.
- D. Equivalence partitioning is a black-box test technique applied once the requirement exists.
Question 22
Which of the following statements about retrospectives is TRUE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. During retrospectives, in addition to identifying relevant process improvements, participants should also consider how to implement these improvements and retain them based on the context of the project, such as the software development lifecycle.
A retrospective that only lists problems changes nothing. As well as identifying improvements, the participants need to work out how each one will be implemented and how it will be kept in place, taking account of the project's context including the lifecycle in use. That is what turns an observation into a lasting change.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Restricting a retrospective to developers and testers leaves out people such as business representatives whose input often explains the problem.
- B. Retrospectives absolutely require follow-up. Without it the agreed improvements are never made.
- C. A retrospective looks back over an iteration. It cannot replace the daily coordination a stand-up provides.
Question 23
If test cases are written in the given/when/then format, what type of test-first software development is being used?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Behavior-driven development
Behaviour-driven development expresses the desired behaviour in a simple, structured natural language using the Given, When, Then format, so that business stakeholders can read and agree the tests. Those statements are then turned into executable tests.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Test-driven development writes unit tests in code before the production code that satisfies them. Its tests are not written in Given, When, Then form.
- B. Acceptance test-driven development derives tests from acceptance criteria, often as concrete examples, but the Given, When, Then structure is the signature of BDD.
- C. Business-driven development is not one of the test-first approaches described in the syllabus.
Question 24
Calculate the measurement error SD for the following estimates done using three-point estimation technique:
Most optimistic effort (a) -120 person days Most likely effort (m) -180 person days Most pessimistic effort (b) - 240 person days
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 20
In three-point estimation the measurement error, or standard deviation, is the most pessimistic estimate minus the most optimistic one, divided by six. That is 240 minus 120 over 6, which gives 20 person days.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. 120 is the optimistic estimate quoted unchanged.
- C. 180 is the most likely estimate quoted unchanged.
- D. 197 is close to the expected value the formula for E would produce, not the standard deviation.
Question 25
In what way does configuration management help the tester?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. It uniquely identifies the items to be tested
Configuration management gives every item under test a unique identity and keeps track of its versions and the relationships between them. That is what lets a tester say precisely which build, which test data, and which test scripts a result came from, and reproduce it later.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Execution order is decided during test implementation and controlled by the test procedures, not by configuration management.
- B. Configuration management makes it possible to see what changed when a regression appears. It cannot stop regressions occurring.
- C. Unit testing is enforced by development practice and by the definition of done, not by identifying and versioning items.
Question 26
Which of the following best suggests the need for maintenance testing?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Adding a new feature to an existing system
Maintenance testing is performed on a system that is already in operation, when it is modified, migrated, or retired. Adding a new feature to an existing system is a modification of a live system, so the change itself and the areas it could affect both need testing.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Alpha testing takes place before release, so failures found there belong to the original development effort rather than to maintenance.
- B. The initial release is the end of development. There is no operational system yet to maintain.
- C. Requirements changing before deployment is development churn, handled by the normal test levels rather than by maintenance testing.
Question 27
An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test. While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met. This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect.
The memory leak is the flaw in the code, since the application does not release memory it has finished with, and a flaw in a work product is a defect. The steadily slowing response time is what an observer sees when that defect is executed, and behaviour that differs from what was expected is a failure. So the slowdown is the failure and the memory leak is the defect.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. The slowdown is observed behaviour, which makes it a failure rather than a defect, and the memory leak is in the code, which makes it a defect rather than an error.
- C. An error is the human mistake that produced the defect, such as forgetting to free the memory. The slowdown is not an error.
- D. This inverts both terms. The slowdown is what is seen and the memory leak is what causes it.
Question 28
Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics
DevOps brings development and operations together, so concerns that used to surface only after release become part of the delivery pipeline. Performance, reliability, security, and other non-functional characteristics are the ones that operations cares about most, and DevOps pulls testing of those characteristics forward into the pipeline.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. DevOps does not turn operations staff into functional testers. It shares responsibility for delivery and monitoring.
- B. Nor does it make testers responsible for operations testing.
- C. DevOps relies heavily on automation but does not eliminate manual testing. Exploratory and usability testing remain valuable.
Question 29
A document describes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets. Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified.
This document is a typical work product produced as part of:
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Test implementation.
Test procedures state the sequence in which test cases are run, taking account of the preconditions and postconditions that make one case depend on another. Sequencing test cases into executable procedures and test suites is done during test implementation, so that is where this document is produced.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Test design produces the test cases themselves and their coverage items, not the order in which they are run.
- B. Test analysis produces test conditions, which come before test cases.
- D. Test monitoring and control produces test progress reports and directs the effort. It does not produce test procedures.
Question 30
After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive.
Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is TRUE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing.
Decommissioning is one of the triggers for maintenance testing. Here the documents must be preserved for at least 20 years in a state archive, so they have to be moved out of the system before it is switched off. Testing that the archiving and data migration completed correctly, with nothing lost or corrupted, is required maintenance testing.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The absence of a replacement system does not remove the obligation to preserve the data, and that obligation has to be verified.
- C. Confirmation testing re-runs a test that failed, after a fix. Nothing is being fixed here.
- D. Regression testing checks that unchanged parts still work after a change. The system is being retired, so there is nothing left to regress.
Question 31
From a testing perspective, configuration management:
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.
From the tester's point of view, configuration management identifies the testware and keeps track of every change to its versions, along with the relationships between test items and test environments. That is what makes a test run reproducible and lets a result be tied to a specific version of the tests and of the system.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Comparing expected results with actual results is what a test execution or comparison tool does.
- C. Directing and controlling an organization with regard to quality is the definition of quality management.
- D. Configuring the breadth and depth of static analysis is a setting inside a static analysis tool.
Question 32
When is the detailed risk analysis for a story first conducted?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Iteration planning
Risk is considered at several levels, but the detailed analysis of a specific story happens when the team commits to building it, which is during iteration planning. Release planning takes a broader view across the release, and only at iteration planning does the team have the story detail needed to assess its risks in depth.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Project planning is too early and too coarse. Individual stories do not yet exist in a form that can be analysed in detail.
- C. Release planning considers risk at the level of the release and its features, which informs prioritisation rather than the detailed analysis of one story.
- D. Epic planning is at an even higher level than release planning, dealing with large bodies of work not yet broken into stories.
Question 33
You have been given the following test cases for execution. You have been told that security and usability are the highest priorities respectively for this banking application.
What is the proper execution order for these test cases?
1. Update a customer’s account balance
2. Query a customer’s account balance
3. Delete a request for a paper statement
4. Change the font size on the page to improve readability
5. Create a new payee in a customer’s automatic bill pay list
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
Security is the higher priority and usability the second, so the security-sensitive cases run first and the cosmetic one last. Updating an account balance, deleting a request for a paper statement, and creating a new payee all change data or entitlements, so they carry the security risk. Querying a balance is read-only, and changing the font size is the usability case. That gives 1, 3, 5, 2, 4.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This starts with case 3 and demotes the balance update, even though updating a balance is the most security-sensitive operation in the list.
- B. This runs the usability case fourth and pushes a security-relevant case to last, inverting the stated priorities.
- D. This opens with the font size change, which is the usability case and therefore the lowest priority of the two categories.
Question 34
Which of the following provides two defined risk response actions to help control product risk?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Transfer risk, Accept risk
The recognised responses to a product risk are to mitigate it by testing, to transfer it to another party, to accept it and be ready to deal with the consequences, or to write a contingency plan. Transfer risk and accept risk are both on that list, so this pair is the correct one.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Deny risk is not a response action. Refusing to acknowledge a risk leaves it untreated and unmanaged.
- B. Accept risk is valid, but abandon risk is not a recognised response.
- C. Neither abandon risk nor delay risk is a defined response action.
Question 35
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Testing based on the structure of the software under test (SUT) is white-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour without pre-written test cases is experience based testing.
White-box testing derives tests from the internal structure of the software under test, which is exactly what option A says. Testing the input and output behaviour without pre-written test cases, deciding what to try as you go, is experience-based testing, of which exploratory testing is the usual example. Both halves of the statement are correct.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Black-box testing derives tests from the specified behaviour rather than from the design, and testing input and output behaviour is black-box rather than experience-based on its own.
- C. White-box testing can be applied statically to code that is not yet running, and exploratory testing needs something executable, so this reverses both.
- D. Black-box techniques derive test cases systematically from the specification. Describing them as testing without pre-written test cases contradicts what they are.
Question 36
Testing can be seen as a destructive activity.
Which of the following generic skills will help a tester overcome this barrier?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Communicating with empathy
Reporting defects tells people their work contains mistakes, which is why testing can feel destructive. Communicating with empathy is the skill that keeps that conversation constructive, so the finding is heard as information about the product rather than as criticism of the person.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Analytical thinking helps a tester find defects. It does nothing about how the news of them is received.
- C. Curiosity drives a tester to investigate. Like analytical thinking, it is about finding problems rather than communicating them.
- D. Tool knowledge is a technical skill and has no bearing on the relationship between testers and the rest of the team.
Question 37
Consider the following test-related items (1, 2, 3, 4) and four testing quadrants (Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4):
1. Security tests
2. Examples
3. Component integration tests
4. Exploratory tests
Q1: technology facing, supporting the development team Q2: business facing, supporting the development team
Q3: business facing, critique the product Q4: technology facing, critique the product
How do the specified test-related items map onto the four testing quadrants?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. 1-Q4, 2-Q2, 3-Q1, 4-Q3
Security tests are technology facing and critique the product, so they belong in Q4. Examples are business facing and support the team, which is Q2. Component integration tests are technology facing and support the team, which is Q1. Exploratory tests are business facing and critique the product, which is Q3.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This places security tests in Q3 and exploratory tests in Q4, reversing both. Security is technology facing and exploratory is business facing.
- C. This puts security tests in Q1 and component integration tests in Q3, neither of which matches their facing or purpose.
- D. This puts examples in Q1 and component integration tests in Q2, swapping a business-facing item with a technology-facing one.
Question 38
Which of the following is a correct statement regarding Quadrant Q2 of the testing quadrants?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. It is business facing, supports the team, and contains functional tests and API tests
Quadrant Q2 is business facing and supports the team. It holds functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations, which check the acceptance criteria and may be manual or automated.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Technology facing and supporting the team with component and component integration tests describes Q1.
- B. Business facing and critiquing the product, with exploratory and usability testing, describes Q3.
- C. Technology facing and critiquing the product, with smoke and performance tests, describes Q4.
Question 39
A test manager has started a cycle of testing for an e-commerce application. The reason for testing is the change in the protocol for connecting to the payment gateway because of new regulations.
Which of the following correctly names this type of testing?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Maintenance testing
The e-commerce application is already live and is being changed because the payment gateway protocol has to be updated for new regulations. Testing a modification to a system that is in operation is maintenance testing, and it covers both the change itself and regression testing of the areas it could affect.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Beta testing is acceptance testing performed by real users at their own sites before general release.
- B. Retirement testing applies when a system is being decommissioned, not modified.
- C. System integration testing does describe the kind of interface being changed, but the question asks what type of testing the cycle is, and a change to a live system makes it maintenance testing.
Question 40
Consider the following list of possible benefits of retrospectives (A to D):
[A] Team bonding and learning [B] Increased test effectiveness/efficiency [C] Improved quality of the test basis [D] Better cooperation between development and testing ... and the list of possible characteristics of retrospectives (1 to 4) that enable achieving these benefits:
1. The possibility of implementing suggestions for process improvement
2. The opportunity to raise problems and propose points for improvement
3. The regular review and optimization of the collaboration between team members
4. The possibility of addressing and solving deficiencies in the extent and quality of the requirements
Which ONE of the following options presents the BEST mapping between benefits and characteristics from retrospectives?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. A2, B1, C4, D3
Each benefit follows from the characteristic that produces it. Team bonding and learning comes from the opportunity to raise problems and propose improvements together, so A maps to 2. Increased test effectiveness and efficiency comes from actually implementing the process improvements suggested, so B maps to 1. Improved quality of the test basis comes from addressing deficiencies in the extent and quality of the requirements, so C maps to 4. Better cooperation between development and testing comes from regularly reviewing and optimising how team members work together, so D maps to 3.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This maps implementing improvements to team bonding and collaboration review to test basis quality, neither of which follows.
- C. This maps requirements deficiencies to team bonding, which confuses a documentation benefit with a people one.
- D. This maps collaboration review to team bonding and implementing improvements to test basis quality, both of which are misaligned.
Question 41
Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique:
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. That can be organized into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration.
Exploratory testing designs, executes, and evaluates tests together, and it is commonly organised into time-boxed sessions guided by a test charter. The charter states the objective for the session, which gives the exploration direction without prescribing the individual test cases in advance.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A developer and a tester sharing a workstation describes pair working. It is not what exploratory testing means.
- C. Exploring the test object is the point, not exploring test techniques to pick the best combination.
- D. Exercising all possible combinations of inputs and preconditions is exhaustive testing, which is impossible and is the opposite of the focused exploration a charter gives.
Question 42
Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied.
This question asks which statement is false. Traceability links test basis items to the tests that cover them, which supports coverage measurement, impact analysis when the basis changes, and reporting. What it does not do is enable experience-based techniques, because those draw on the tester's knowledge, experience, and intuition rather than on documented links.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This is true. Traceability is what makes it possible to say which test basis items the executed tests have covered.
- C. This is true. When a requirement changes, traceability identifies the test cases affected by that change.
- D. This is true. Traceability can run through the whole documentation chain, from test conditions to test cases to test scripts.
Question 43
A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300,000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year.
The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300,000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300,000)".
The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):
• TC1 = 299,999
• TC2=300,000
• TC=300,001
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. TC3 would highlight the fault.
The correct decision pays the bonus when TAS is 300,000 or more. The faulty decision pays it only when TAS is exactly 300,000. At 299,999 both versions withhold the bonus, and at 300,000 both pay it, so neither reveals anything. At 300,001 the correct version pays and the faulty version does not, so TC3 is the test case that exposes the fault.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. At 299,999 the correct code withholds the bonus and so does the faulty code, so the results agree.
- B. At 300,000 both versions pay the bonus, since 300,000 satisfies both the equality and the greater-than-or-equal test.
- D. One of the three does highlight the fault, so this statement is false.
Question 44
Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined.
Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders
A mature test organization is one that adapts its practice to the context rather than repeating a fixed recipe. Deciding which test design techniques to use on the basis of factors such as the domain, the risks, and stakeholder expectations is exactly the judgement a high maturity level implies.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Aiming at 100 percent automation on every project ignores the many cases where automation costs more than it returns.
- B. Using the same processes with no tweaks is rigidity, not maturity. Mature processes are tailored to the project.
- C. A single test strategy varied only by whoever happens to be the test manager is not a context-driven decision.
Question 45
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing.
Black-box techniques derive tests from the specified behaviour and experience-based techniques draw on the tester's knowledge and intuition. Neither depends on whether the characteristic being tested is functional or non-functional, so both families can be used for functional testing and for non-functional testing alike.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Non-functional testing applies to artificial intelligence-based systems as much as to conventional ones, and characteristics such as performance and security matter there too.
- B. The contrast drawn is wrong. Functional testing is about what the system does and non-functional testing is about how well it does it. White-box testing is about the internal structure.
- C. Non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, including component testing, where performance or resource use may be measured.
Question 46
Which sequence of state transitions is INCORRECT in accordance with the following description?
To provide for disaster recovery a system (designated as A) has been provided with a backup system (designated as B). Only one of them can be active at a time.
When A goes down, B becomes active.
When A comes back up then B becomes inactive and A becomes active again. However, when A is down and B also goes down then a message is sent to the system administrator. After this once A comes back up, A becomes active or if B comes up then B becomes Active.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. A and B are both down then A and B both come back up at the same time A should become the active system and B should be inactive
The description only says what happens when one system comes back up after both are down: if A comes up A becomes active, or if B comes up B becomes active. It says nothing about both coming up at the same moment and gives no rule making A win that race, so the sequence in option D is not supported by the description.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This follows the description. A goes down so B becomes active, then B goes down as well, and A is made active when it returns.
- B. This follows the description directly. When A comes back up, B becomes inactive and A becomes active.
- C. This is the basic failover the description states, with B becoming active when A goes down.
Question 47
An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.
Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.
Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed and his work was lost.
The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.
Which of the following tools had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Configuration Management Tool
A configuration management tool holds the testware in a version-controlled repository, so work is committed centrally as it is done rather than living only on one machine. Sam's updated test cases would have been checked in and would have survived the loss of his hard disk.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. An incident management tool records defects and their status. It does not store or version test cases.
- C. A backup tool is what the IT department already had, and it restored a copy from the previous morning, which is precisely why the work was lost.
- D. A test execution tool runs tests. It is not a repository for them.
Question 48
In a review which of the following is the responsibility of the manager?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Ensuring that sufficient time is available for review
The manager decides what is to be reviewed and provides the resources it needs, which includes allocating enough time in the schedule for people to prepare and take part. Making sure sufficient time is available is therefore the manager's responsibility, and it is one of the most common reasons reviews fail when it is not done.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Performing a detailed review based on experience is the reviewer's contribution.
- B. Organising the logistics of the meeting belongs to the review leader and facilitator.
- D. Measuring the performance of individual reviewers is not a review responsibility at all, and doing it discourages honest participation.
Question 49
Which of the following statements about the test pyramid is TRUE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production code a single automated test within the layer tends to cover.
The pyramid runs from many fast, narrow tests at the bottom to few broad tests at the top. A test at a higher layer exercises the system through a wider path, so a single test at that layer touches more production code than a single unit test does.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The layers are defined by granularity and integration level, not by quality characteristic.
- C. Higher-layer tests are less maintainable, because they depend on more of the system and break more often when any part of it changes.
- D. Higher-layer tests are less isolated, since they involve more components and more real dependencies.
Question 50
Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses.
Whatever lifecycle is used, each test level should have its own objectives, and those objectives should suit the phase or the type of activity the level addresses. That prevents unnecessary duplication between levels and makes sure the gaps between them are covered.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Waiting for coding to finish before starting test analysis and design is late testing, and it removes the chance to find defects in the test basis.
- C. Face-to-face conversation being the most efficient method of conveying information is a principle from the Agile Manifesto, so it does not apply to every lifecycle.
- D. Automating every test and running it on every change is a practice suited to continuous integration, not a universal good practice.
Question 51
Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is TRUE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Refactoring is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code written to satisfy those tests.
Test-driven development runs a short cycle of writing a failing test, writing just enough code to pass it, and then refactoring. Refactoring is an integral part of that cycle and it applies to the test code as well as to the production code, since both have to stay clean enough to keep working in.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. ATDD is a development approach, not a black-box test design technique, and the tests it produces are not confined to the acceptance level.
- C. BDD exists precisely so that business stakeholders can take part, which is why its tests are written in structured natural language.
- D. Running acceptance tests inside continuous integration is a CI practice. ATDD is about deriving the tests from acceptance criteria before the code is written.
Question 52
A typical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to:
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient.
Testing involves many repetitive tasks, from setting up data to running regression suites, and being able to use tools to perform them more efficiently is one of the generic skills expected of a tester. It frees time for the work that needs human judgement.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Taking on the developer role to meet a deadline compromises the independence of testing and is not a testing skill.
- B. Imposing decisions on the team is not leadership as the syllabus describes it, and testers work by influence and evidence rather than authority.
- D. Deciding corrective actions when a project deviates from the test plan is a test management responsibility.
Question 53
Which of the following statements about white-box testing is FALSE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Achieving full code coverage for a component or a system ensures that it has been fully tested.
This question asks which statement is false. Full code coverage means every statement or branch has been executed at least once, but it says nothing about whether the code does the right thing, and it cannot reveal functionality that was never implemented. Claiming that full coverage means a component has been fully tested is therefore untrue.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This is true. Reviewers can apply white-box thinking about paths and conditions while reading code statically.
- B. This is true. Coverage measurements are objective, and gaps in them point directly at test cases worth adding.
- D. This is true. Coverage measurement on black-box tests shows which parts of the code they reached, which increases confidence in the result.
Question 54
What does the "absence-of-defects fallacy" refer to in software development?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The belief that thoroughly testing all requirements guarantees system success
The fallacy is the belief that finding and fixing defects, or testing every requirement thoroughly, is enough to guarantee a successful system. It is not, because software can be free of known defects and still fail to meet the users' real needs or fit the environment it has to work in.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Nobody claims fixing defects is unimportant. The fallacy is about assuming it is sufficient.
- B. Constant quality assurance and improvement is a sound practice rather than a fallacy.
- C. The fallacy does not say verification is unnecessary. It says verification alone does not guarantee success.
Question 55
Consider the following statements (I to V) about software testing:
I. Can be applied to non-executable work products.
II. Can be used to measure performance efficiency.
III. Can lead to the detection of defects.
IV. Can find defects directly.
V. Can identify unexpected behaviors caused by potential defects.
Which ONE of the following options is the list that characterizes static tests the BEST?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Statements I, III, and IV
Static testing examines a work product without executing it, so it can be applied to non-executable work products such as requirements and designs, statement I. Because it examines the artifact directly, it finds defects rather than failures, which covers statements III and IV. That gives I, III, and IV.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Statement II, measuring performance efficiency, requires the software to run, and statement V, identifying unexpected behaviour, describes observing a failure during execution.
- C. Statement II is dynamic, so this list mixes a dynamic characteristic in with two static ones.
- D. Statements II and V are both dynamic characteristics.
Question 56
Which testing principle provides a good reason to base testing upon risk mitigation priorities?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Exhaustive testing is impossible
Exhaustive testing is impossible, so testing has to be focused rather than complete. The consequence is that effort must be directed where it matters most, and risk is the measure used to decide that. Prioritising by risk is the direct practical response to this principle.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Testing shows the presence of defects explains what a passing test does and does not prove. It does not tell you where to spend effort.
- C. The pesticide paradox says tests lose their power to find new defects and must be varied. That is about changing tests, not about prioritising by risk.
- D. Defect clustering does suggest where to look, but the reason effort has to be prioritised at all is that testing everything is impossible.
Question 57
What is a reasonable way to control and minimize the cost of testing and development?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Conduct formal reviews to detect defects as early as possible.
The cost of removing a defect rises the later it is found, so the most reliable way to control the cost of testing and development is to find defects as close as possible to where they were introduced. Formal reviews do this by examining requirements, designs, and code before anything is executed, catching defects that would otherwise surface in later test levels or in production.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. A usability analysis before user interface design is good practice for one quality characteristic. It does not address the general cost of defects across the project.
- C. Acceptance testing is one of the last levels, so automating detection there still finds defects late, when they are expensive to fix.
- D. Lowering the hourly cost of testers does not reduce the number of defects or the cost of fixing them late. It can increase both.
Question 58
Which of the following examples represents System Integration testing?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Testing if e-commerce website works correctly with a third-party payment gateway
System integration testing checks the interfaces and interactions between the system and other systems or external services. An e-commerce website working correctly with a third-party payment gateway is exactly that: two separately built systems exchanging data across an interface.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Testing against a specification with a simulator standing in for a sub-system is system testing, where the simulator removes the real interaction.
- B. Testing in an environment resembling production describes where the testing happens, not which level it is.
- C. Checking that the application fulfils business needs is acceptance testing.
Question 59
Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes the activities of “testing” and “debugging”?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Testing triggers a failure that is caused by a defect in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this failure (defects), analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.
Testing executes the software and triggers a failure caused by a defect. Debugging is the development activity that follows: reproducing the failure, finding the defect that caused it, analysing that cause, and eliminating it.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Debugging does not end at reproducing the causes. Its purpose is to remove them.
- C. Testing does not identify a defect directly during dynamic execution. It triggers a failure, and the defect is found afterwards.
- D. Testing triggers a failure, not a defect, and a defect is caused by an error rather than the other way round.
Question 60
Which of the following statements about statement coverage is TRUE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised.
Statement coverage is defined as the proportion of executable statements exercised by the tests, so a figure of 80 percent means exactly that 80 percent of the executable statements have been run. It carries no implication about any other coverage measure.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Statement and branch coverage are not proportional. A given statement coverage figure implies nothing about the branch figure.
- B. Coverage counts which statements ran, not whether the values they used were initialised. Detecting use of an uninitialised variable is a static analysis concern.
- C. Full statement coverage does not guarantee full branch coverage. An if statement with no else can have all its statements executed while the false outcome is never taken.
Question 61
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about error guessing?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Fault attacks are an example of a technique for implementing error guessing
Error guessing draws on the tester's knowledge of how the software has failed before and where defects are likely to hide. A fault attack is the disciplined form of it, in which the tester builds a list of possible errors, defects, and failures and then designs tests aimed at each entry, so it is a technique for implementing error guessing.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Error guessing is done by testers about likely defects in the software, not by developers guessing what testers will miss.
- B. Guessing what mistakes a test case might contain is reviewing testware, not error guessing applied to the test object.
- C. Past failures are one of the main inputs to error guessing, since defects tend to recur in the same places and forms.
Question 62
A functional requirement states that pressure values must always be positive and stay within a range of 100 to 200 pounds for a particular tank (100 and 200 are valid within the range).
Which of the following is the minimum set of values that would achieve coverage using the equivalence partitioning technique?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. A series of tests where pressure is set to 98, 110, and 201 pounds
The valid range is 100 to 200 inclusive, so there are three partitions: values below 100, values from 100 to 200, and values above 200. Minimum coverage needs one value from each, and 98, 110, and 201 does exactly that with no redundancy.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. 98, 100, and 200 covers the invalid low partition and then twice covers the valid partition. Nothing above 200 is tested.
- C. 100, 110, and 200 are all inside the valid partition, so neither invalid partition is covered.
- D. This covers the three partitions but uses four values where three suffice, so it is not the minimum set.
Question 63
Which of the following correctly represents a test first approach?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. First the tests fail then the code is written to pass the tests and this is iterated
The question asks what a test-first approach is, and the essential cycle is the same in all of them: write a test that fails because the behaviour does not exist yet, write just enough code to make it pass, and repeat. Option C captures that loop.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Deriving tests from acceptance criteria describes ATDD, which is one particular test-first approach rather than the general pattern.
- B. Writing behaviour in Given, When, Then form describes BDD, again one specific approach.
- D. Refactoring before any test exists inverts the cycle. Refactoring comes after the test passes, protected by that test.
Question 64
Which of the following is an example of scenario-oriented acceptance criteria?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. A user is already logged in then on navigating to the AI model testing page the user should be directly shown the report of last test run
Scenario-oriented criteria describe a situation, an action, and the resulting behaviour, in the style of Given, When, Then. Option D does that: given the user is already logged in, when they navigate to the model testing page, then the report of the last test run is shown.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This states a capability the product must have. It is a rule rather than a scenario.
- B. This is a rule about what an unregistered user must not see, with no situation or sequence of events.
- C. This is worded as a verification instruction for a tester rather than as a scenario describing system behaviour.
Question 65
Which of the following is supported by good information traceability?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Understandability of test reports
Traceability links test basis items to the test cases and results that cover them. When a report can say which requirements were tested, which passed, and which risks remain open, the reader can interpret the numbers and act on them. That is what makes test reports understandable to stakeholders.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Portability of automation code depends on how the scripts and framework are written, not on links between requirements and tests.
- C. The dependability of a test environment is a property of how it is built and controlled.
- D. The stability of the system under test is determined by the quality of the code and the changes being made to it.
Question 66
Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only allows registered users to make purchases:
“As a new user, | want to register to the website, so that | can start shopping online” The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story:
[a] The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name, last name, date of birth, password and repeat password.
[b] To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions.
[c] To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid address is entered.
[d] To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must be between 2 and 80 characters long. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered.
[e] After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form.
Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is MOST LIKELY to be written first?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form.
In ATDD the tests are derived from the acceptance criteria, and the usual practice is to write the positive path first, since it establishes the behaviour the story exists to deliver. Option D covers registering with all valid values, accepting the terms and conditions, submitting, and receiving the confirmation email, which is the main successful scenario and spans criteria b and e.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The disposable email address case is a negative scenario, written after the positive path is established.
- B. The invalid first name case is likewise a negative scenario.
- C. Logging in and placing an order is outside this story, which covers registration only.
Question 67
An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs.
Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. 9, 10, 5000, 5001
The valid range is 10 to 5000 inclusive, so the boundaries are 10 and 5000 and their nearest neighbours outside the range are 9 and 5001. Testing 9, 10, 5000, and 5001 covers both boundaries and both adjacent invalid values with no wasted cases, which is what makes it efficient.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This set is malformed, and even read generously it omits the upper boundary values entirely.
- C. 10 and 5000 exercise the boundary values but never test just outside them, so an off-by-one error in the limits would pass.
- D. This adds 11 and 4999, which lie inside the valid partition next to values already tested and therefore add nothing, so the set is not the efficient one.
Question 68
Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during:
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Test planning.
Test planning is where the objectives and approach are set within the constraints of the context, and that includes building the schedule. Turning activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints into a timeline with milestones is a typical test planning task.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Test execution runs the test suites and records the results. The schedule already exists by then.
- B. Test design turns test conditions into test cases and other testware.
- C. Test analysis evaluates the test basis to identify testable features and define test conditions.
Question 69
Which of the following statements correctly describe the business facing quadrant that supports the team?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. It is the quadrant that deals with tests created on the basis of user stories
The business-facing quadrant that supports the team is Q2. It contains the tests that check the acceptance criteria, which are derived from the user stories, together with examples, prototypes, API tests, and simulations. Those tests guide the team on what to build rather than criticise what has been built.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Component testing is technology facing and supports the team, which places it in Q1.
- B. Performance and other non-functional tests are technology facing and critique the product, which places them in Q4.
- D. Exploratory tests are business facing but they critique the product, which places them in Q3.
Question 70
Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.
This question asks which item is false. A test plan is written before and maintained during testing, and it covers staffing, entry and exit criteria, and suspension and resumption criteria. A list of the product risks still unmitigated when execution finishes is a result, so it belongs in a test completion report rather than in the plan.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Staffing needs, including temporary additional testers for particular phases, are typical test plan content.
- B. Conditions for considering execution complete are the exit criteria, which the plan states.
- D. Conditions for suspending and resuming activities are the suspension and resumption criteria, also typical plan content.
That was 70 of 278.
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