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Free Oracle 1Z0-083 Practice Questions

45 free Oracle 1Z0-083 practice questions from the CertStash pack of 181, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. The rule is the same for every exam: ten free on the product page, 45 free here, all 181 in the pack, and each step includes the one before it.

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Question 1

Which two are true about flashback features in Oracle Database 19c and later releases? (Choose two.)

  1. Flashback logs are automatically purged when DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is set lower than the time they have already been retained.
  2. Flashback logs are monitored and proactively deleted when beyond the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET only after there is space pressure.
  3. Flashback logs are monitored and proactively deleted when beyond the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET before there is space pressure.
  4. Flashback logs are monitored for being older than the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET and can be deleted by an administrator written event trigger.
  5. Flashback logs are automatically purged whenever the value of DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is changed.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, C. Flashback logs are automatically purged when DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is set lower than the time they have already been retained; Flashback logs are monitored and proactively deleted when beyond the retention period defined in DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET before there is space pressure.

Flashback logs are managed by Oracle with proactive deletion based on the DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET parameter. Option A is correct because when DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET is lowered, logs exceeding the new retention period are automatically purged. Option C is correct because Oracle monitors flashback logs and deletes those beyond the retention period before space pressure occurs, enabling predictable resource management. Option B is incorrect because deletion happens proactively, not only during space pressure. Options D and E are incorrect because flashback logs are managed automatically by the database, not through administrator triggers or manual changes to the parameter.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Flashback logs are deleted proactively before space pressure, not reactively only when space is needed.
  • D. Flashback logs cannot be deleted by administrator-written event triggers; deletion is automatic.
  • E. Simply changing DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET does not trigger purging; the new value is applied going forward.

Question 2

Which two are true about RMAN duplexed backup sets? (Choose two.)

  1. A duplexed backup set uses the same number of SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.
  2. A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.
  3. A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.
  4. A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on disk.
  5. A non-duplexed backup set written to SBT can be duplexed to disk by backing up the backup set that is already on tape.
  6. A duplexed backup set always uses twice as many SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D, F. A non-duplexed backup set written to disk can be duplexed to tape by backing up the backup set that is already on disk; A duplexed backup set always uses twice as many SBT channels as a non-duplexed backup set for the same number of files.

Duplexed backup sets create multiple copies of backup data across channels. Option D is correct because a non-duplexed backup set on disk can be duplexed to tape by using the BACKUP BACKUPSET command to create a copy on tape. Option F is correct because duplexing inherently doubles the channel utilization, one set of channels reads the original backup while another set writes to the duplex destination. Option A is wrong because duplexing requires additional channels. Options B, C, and E are incorrect because duplexing follows source-to-different-destination patterns: disk to tape (D) or tape backups cannot be re-duplexed to other media by simply backing up the existing backup in the same location.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Duplexed backup sets require more channels than non-duplexed sets to read and write simultaneously.
  • B. A disk backup cannot be duplexed to disk; duplexing creates copies to different destination types.
  • C. Tape backups cannot be duplexed by backing up the tape backup again; this would create a duplicate, not a duplex.
  • E. Tapes cannot be duplexed to disk by backing up the tape; the direction is reversed from option D's capability.

Question 3

Which three are true about RMAN persistent configuration settings, administration, and their effects? (Choose three.)

  1. A target database's persistent RMAN configuration settings are always stored in the target's control file
  2. Backup older than the recovery window retention policy are always deleted automatically if the backup location has insufficient space.
  3. Backups written to the fast recovery area (FRA) that are obsolete based on the redundancy retention policy can be deleted automatically to free space.
  4. The RMAN SHOW ALL command displays only settings with nondefault values.
  5. A target database's persistent RMAN configuration settings are always synchronized automatically with the RMAN catalog.
  6. The V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION view displays only settings with values that have been modified.
  7. A DBA must specify either a redundancy retention policy or a recovery window retention policy.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, C, F. A target database's persistent RMAN configuration settings are always stored in the target's control file; Backups written to the fast recovery area (FRA) that are obsolete based on the redundancy retention policy can be deleted automatically to free space; The V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION view displays only settings with values that have been modified.

Option A is correct because RMAN configuration settings are always stored in the target database's control file as the permanent repository. Option C is correct because backups stored in the FRA that become obsolete under the redundancy retention policy are automatically deleted to free up space in the FRA. Option F is correct because V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION displays only configuration settings that have been explicitly modified from their default values. Option B is incorrect because backups are deleted only if obsolete by policy, not automatically during space pressure without policy triggers. Option E is incorrect because persistent RMAN configurations stored in the control file are not automatically synchronized with the RMAN catalog. Option G is incorrect because specifying a retention policy is optional; neither redundancy nor recovery window policies are mandatory.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Backups are deleted based on retention policies, not automatically during space pressure alone.
  • D. SHOW ALL displays all configuration settings, both default and modified.
  • E. Control file configurations are independent; they do not automatically synchronize with an RMAN catalog.
  • G. No retention policy is required; both are optional configuration choices.

Question 4

Which three are true about Optimizer Statistics Advisor? (Choose three.)

  1. It can be run only manually.
  2. It is part of the DBMS_ADVISOR package.
  3. It can recommend changes to improve the statistics gathering process.
  4. It always analyzes all schemas in the database.
  5. It runs automatically every night by default.
  6. It is part of the DBMS_STATS package.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C, E, F. It can recommend changes to improve the statistics gathering process; It runs automatically every night by default; It is part of the DBMS_STATS package.

Optimizer Statistics Advisor, introduced in Oracle Database 12.2, is implemented in the DBMS_STATS package. It analyzes how statistics are gathered and recommends improvements to the gathering process. By default the AUTO_STATS_ADVISOR_TASK runs automatically once a day in the maintenance window.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. The advisor runs automatically every night by default, and it can also be run manually.
  • B. The advisor's procedures are in DBMS_STATS, not DBMS_ADVISOR.
  • D. Filters can restrict the advisor's scope to particular schemas, objects or rules, so it does not always analyze every schema.

Question 5

You issued this command: RMAN> BACKUP RECOVERY FILES; Which two are true? (Choose two.)

  1. All Oracle recovery files not in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.
  2. All non-Oracle files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.
  3. All Oracle recovery files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.
  4. All Oracle recovery files in the current fast recovery area (FRA) are backed up.
  5. These backups can be written to disk or SBT.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, C. All Oracle recovery files not in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up; All Oracle recovery files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

Option A is correct because BACKUP RECOVERY FILES backs up all Oracle recovery files not currently in the FRA that have not already been backed up. Option C is correct because BACKUP RECOVERY FILES also backs up all Oracle recovery files that are in the current FRA if they have not been backed up previously. Together, A and C cover all recovery files, both inside and outside the FRA. Option B is incorrect because non-Oracle files are not included in recovery file backups. Option D is incorrect because only files not already backed up are targeted, not all FRA recovery files unconditionally. Option E is incorrect because BACKUP RECOVERY FILES can only be written to SBT (tape), not to disk.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Non-Oracle files in the FRA are not included in BACKUP RECOVERY FILES.
  • D. Only previously unbacked-up recovery files are backed up, not all FRA files.
  • E. BACKUP RECOVERY FILES writes only to SBT; disk is not a valid destination for this command.

Question 6

Which two are true about the Oracle database methodology? (Choose two.)

  1. The Oracle Database time model should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.
  2. Tuning activities should stop once the user is satisfied with performance.
  3. Tuning activities should stop once agreed service levels for performance have been met.
  4. The database instance memory should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.
  5. SQL statements should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.
  6. The alert log should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, C. The Oracle Database time model should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning; Tuning activities should stop once agreed service levels for performance have been met.

Option A is correct because the Oracle Database time model (as captured in V$SESS_TIME_MODEL and V$SYS_TIME_MODEL) provides a systematic way to identify database and instance components most in need of tuning. Option C is correct because tuning activities should be guided by agreed service-level objectives; once those targets are met, further tuning efforts typically yield diminishing returns and should cease. Option B is incorrect because user satisfaction is subjective; tuning should follow measurable service levels. Option D is incorrect because tuning priorities depend on actual bottlenecks, not a predetermined memory-first sequence. Option E is incorrect because tuning priorities are determined by analysis, not by always starting with SQL. Option F is incorrect because the alert log shows critical issues but is not the primary methodology tool; the time model provides a systematic approach.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Tuning should continue based on service-level agreements, not user satisfaction alone.
  • D. Tuning should follow bottleneck analysis, not always prioritize memory first.
  • E. Tuning priorities should be based on analysis, not on always starting with SQL.
  • F. The alert log identifies issues but is not the primary methodology for finding tuning areas; the time model is.

Question 7

While backing up to the Oracle Fast Recovery Area (FRA), you determined the backup is taking too long and suspect a performance bottleneck. Which three are true about diagnosing and tuning these problems? (Choose three.)

  1. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, then both read and write I/O are likely bottlenecks.
  2. Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using synchronous I/O.
  3. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes noticeably less than an actual backup, then write I/O is a likely bottleneck.
  4. If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, then read I/O is a likely bottleneck.
  5. Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_SYNC_IO.DISCRETE_BYTES_PER_SECOND are a potential performance bottleneck when synchronous I/O is used.
  6. Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using asynchronous I/O/
  7. Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_ASYNC_IO.SHORT_WAITS are a potential performance bottleneck when asynchronous I/O is used.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, C, D. Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using synchronous I/O; If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes noticeably less than an actual backup, then write I/O is a likely bottleneck; If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, then read I/O is a likely bottleneck.

Option B is correct because setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non-zero value enables asynchronous I/O for backup operations, improving performance during synchronous backup scenarios. Option C is correct because if BACKUP VALIDATE completes noticeably faster than an actual backup, write I/O to the FRA is the bottleneck. Option D is correct because if BACKUP VALIDATE takes roughly the same time as an actual backup, the read phase is the bottleneck since validation only reads data without writing. Option A is incorrect because equal times indicate a read bottleneck, not both read and write. Option E is incorrect because high DISCRETE_BYTES_PER_SECOND values indicate good performance, not bottlenecks. Option F is incorrect because DBWR_IO_SLAVES improve synchronous I/O performance, not asynchronous. Option G is incorrect because high SHORT_WAITS values indicate healthy asynchronous I/O, not bottlenecks.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Equal VALIDATE and backup times indicate a read bottleneck, not both read and write.
  • E. High DISCRETE_BYTES_PER_SECOND values represent good performance, not bottlenecks.
  • F. DBWR_IO_SLAVES improve synchronous I/O, not asynchronous I/O performance.
  • G. High SHORT_WAITS values indicate efficient asynchronous I/O, not a bottleneck.

Question 8

Which two are true about Oracle Flashback features? (Choose two.)

  1. FLASHBACK QUERY can retrieve REDO records from ONLINE and ARCHIVED REDO LOG files.
  2. FLASHBACK VERSION QUERY can retrieve REDO records from ONLINE and ARCHIVED REDO LOG files.
  3. FLASHBACK TABLE can undrop a column.
  4. FLASHBACK DROP can undrop an index when undropping a table.
  5. After a database is restored from flashback logs using the FLASHBACK DATABASE command, it is sometimes rolled forward using redo logs.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D, E. FLASHBACK DROP can undrop an index when undropping a table; After a database is restored from flashback logs using the FLASHBACK DATABASE command, it is sometimes rolled forward using redo logs.

Option D is correct because FLASHBACK DROP can undrop a table along with its associated indexes, restoring them from the recycle bin. Option E is correct because after using FLASHBACK DATABASE to restore the database to a previous point using flashback logs, redo logs are applied to roll the database forward to the desired point in time after the flashback. Option A is incorrect because FLASHBACK QUERY retrieves data from undo tablespace and undo records, not directly from redo logs. Option B is incorrect because FLASHBACK VERSION QUERY also uses undo information, not redo log records. Option C is incorrect because FLASHBACK TABLE cannot undrop columns; it can only undo DML changes to a table's rows.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. FLASHBACK QUERY retrieves data from undo information, not REDO logs.
  • B. FLASHBACK VERSION QUERY uses undo information, not REDO records from logs.
  • C. FLASHBACK TABLE cannot undrop columns; it only undoes DML changes to rows.

Question 9

Which three are true about transporting databases across platforms using Recovery Manager (RMAN) image copies? (Choose three.)

  1. By default, the transported database will use Oracle Managed Files (OMF)
  2. Data files can be converted on the destination system.
  3. Data files can be converted on the source system.
  4. A new DBID is automatically created for the transported database.
  5. Databases can be transported between systems with different endian formats.
  6. The password file is automatically converted by RMAN.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, C, E. Data files can be converted on the destination system; Data files can be converted on the source system; Databases can be transported between systems with different endian formats.

When transporting databases across platforms using RMAN image copies, data files can be converted on either the source system (during the copy process) or the destination system (after transport). Oracle does not automatically create a new DBID for transported databases, you must manually change it using DBNEWID. Databases can be transported between systems with different endian formats when proper conversion is applied. The password file is not automatically converted by RMAN and must be manually recreated. OMF is not used by default during transport; the destination uses the file locations you specify.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Transported databases do not automatically use OMF; file locations are determined by the RMAN restore process parameters.
  • D. RMAN does not automatically create a new DBID; this must be done manually using the DBNEWID utility.
  • F. The password file is not automatically converted by RMAN and requires manual recreation on the destination system.

Question 10

Examine this command: $ rhpctl move database `"sourcehome Oracle_home_path `"destinationhome Oracle_home_path For which two purposes can you use this command? (Choose two.)

  1. to switch an existing Oracle Database home to a newer release of Oracle software on the same server
  2. to switch to a read-only Oracle home
  3. to switch back to the previous Oracle home as part of a rollback operation
  4. to switch the Oracle Database home when using a centralized Rapid Home Provisioning server
  5. to switch to a patched Oracle Database home
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, E. to switch an existing Oracle Database home to a newer release of Oracle software on the same server; to switch to a patched Oracle Database home

The rhpctl move database command is used to switch an existing Oracle Database home to a newer release of Oracle software on the same server, and also to switch to a patched Oracle Database home. These are legitimate use cases for home relocation in Rapid Home Provisioning environments. The command does not support switching to read-only homes, is not specifically designed for rollback operations, and operates on local homes rather than centralized servers.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. The rhpctl move database command does not support switching to read-only Oracle homes.
  • C. Rollback operations are not a primary purpose of the rhpctl move database command; other methods are used for rollback.
  • D. The rhpctl move database command operates with local Oracle homes, not centralized Rapid Home Provisioning servers.

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Question 11

Which two are true about the character sets used in an Oracle database? (Choose two.)

  1. Single-byte character sets provide better performance than multibyte character sets.
  2. Unicode enables information from any language to be stored using a single character set.
  3. Unicode is the only supported character set for Oracle databases created using Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).
  4. Single-byte character sets always use 7-bit encoding schemes.
  5. Multibyte character sets allow more efficient space utilization than single byte character sets.
  6. Single-byte character sets always use 8-bit encoding schemes.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, B. Single-byte character sets provide better performance than multibyte character sets; Unicode enables information from any language to be stored using a single character set.

Single-byte character sets provide better performance than multibyte character sets because they require simpler processing and less storage overhead per character (option A). Unicode is a multibyte character set that enables information from any language to be stored using a single unified character set, eliminating the need for multiple character sets for different languages (option B). Unicode is not the only supported character set; DBCA allows selection from multiple character sets. Single-byte character sets don't always use 7-bit encoding; standard ASCII uses 7-bit but most single-byte character sets use 8-bit encoding. Multibyte character sets actually require more space per character than single-byte sets, not less, though they provide better compression for certain language combinations.

Why the other options are wrong

  • C. DBCA supports multiple character sets; Unicode is not the only option.
  • D. Single-byte character sets typically use 8-bit encoding, not 7-bit.
  • E. Multibyte character sets use more space per character, not less, though they may compress better for certain languages.
  • F. While most single-byte character sets use 8-bit encoding, this is not universally true for all historical character sets.

Question 12

Which three are true about upgrading Oracle Grid Infrastructure? (Choose three.)

  1. A direct upgrade can be performed only from the immediately preceding Oracle Grid Infrastructure version.
  2. The newer version is installed in a separate Oracle Grid Infrastructure home on the same server as the existing version.
  3. An existing Oracle base can be used.
  4. The upgrade process will automatically install all mandatory patches for the current version of Oracle Grid Infrastructure.
  5. Existing Oracle Database instances must be shut down before starting the upgrade.
  6. Only the grid user can perform the upgrade.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, E, F. The newer version is installed in a separate Oracle Grid Infrastructure home on the same server as the existing version; Existing Oracle Database instances must be shut down before starting the upgrade; Only the grid user can perform the upgrade.

The newer version of Oracle Grid Infrastructure is installed in a separate home directory alongside the existing version on the same server, allowing for safe rollback if needed. Existing Oracle Database instances must be shut down before beginning the Grid Infrastructure upgrade to prevent conflicts and ensure system stability. Only the grid user (or root for some operations) can perform the Grid Infrastructure upgrade due to the privilege requirements for modifying cluster configuration and binaries.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Direct upgrades can be performed from versions other than the immediately preceding version, depending on the specific versions involved.
  • C. A new Oracle base location is typically created for the new Grid Infrastructure version rather than reusing an existing one.
  • D. The upgrade process does not automatically install mandatory patches; patches must be applied separately and prior to or after the upgrade as appropriate.

Question 13

Which two are true about SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA)? (Choose two.)

  1. It is integrated with the SQL Access Advisor.
  2. It predicts the impact of system changes on SQL workload response time.
  3. It provides before and after execution statistics for each SQL statement in the analysis task
  4. It offers fine-grained analysis of all the SQL statements in the analysis task as a group.
  5. SQL statements that were originally run concurrently are run concurrently by SPA.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, C. It predicts the impact of system changes on SQL workload response time; It provides before and after execution statistics for each SQL statement in the analysis task

The SQL Performance Analyzer predicts the impact of system changes on SQL workload response time by comparing SQL execution before and after changes. It provides before and after execution statistics for each SQL statement in the analysis task, allowing detailed comparison of individual statement performance. SPA is not integrated with SQL Access Advisor, offers task-level rather than group-level analysis, and does not maintain original concurrency patterns, statements are typically run sequentially during analysis.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. SPA is not integrated with the SQL Access Advisor; they are separate tools.
  • D. SPA provides fine-grained analysis at the individual SQL statement level, not as a group.
  • E. SPA does not run SQL statements concurrently as they were originally run; analysis is typically sequential.

Question 14

Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2 database containing pluggable databases PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2. 2. PDB$SEED is open READ ONLY 3. PDB1 is open READ WRITE 4. PDB2 is MOUNTED. 5. ORACLE_HOME is /u01/app/oracle/product/18.1.0/dbhome_1. You execute these commands before upgrading the database to the current release: For which databases will fixup scripts be created?

  1. CDB1, PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2
  2. PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2 only
  3. CDB1 and PDB$SEED only
  4. CDB1, PDB1, and PDB2 only
  5. CDB1, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 only
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: E. CDB1, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 only

The preupgrade.jar tool creates fixup scripts for databases that can be analyzed during the upgrade process. PDB2 is MOUNTED, meaning it is closed and inaccessible, the preupgrade tool cannot analyze a mounted database, so no fixup script will be generated for it. The tool successfully generates fixup scripts for the CDB (CDB1), the seed database (PDB$SEED) which is open in READ ONLY mode, and PDB1 which is open in READ WRITE mode. All three of these are accessible and can be analyzed by the preupgrade utility.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. PDB2 is MOUNTED (closed), so preupgrade cannot analyze it and will not generate a fixup script for it.
  • B. CDB1 must be included because the root container itself requires a fixup script during upgrade.
  • C. PDB1 is open in READ WRITE mode and will have a fixup script generated for it.
  • D. PDB$SEED must be included; even though it is READ ONLY, it is open and accessible to the preupgrade tool.

Question 15

Which three are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Oracle 18c? (Choose three.)

  1. It is an Oracle Database service.
  2. It can be used to deploy Oracle Database homes.
  3. It cannot be used to provision applications.
  4. It can be used to deploy Grid Infrastructure homes, including Oracle Restart.
  5. It cannot be used to provision middleware.
  6. It is an Oracle Grid Infrastructure service.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, D, F. It can be used to deploy Oracle Database homes; It can be used to deploy Grid Infrastructure homes, including Oracle Restart; It is an Oracle Grid Infrastructure service.

RHP is an Oracle Grid Infrastructure service available since Oracle 18c that can deploy Oracle Database homes, Grid Infrastructure homes including Oracle Restart, and middleware components. It is not a Database service but rather a Grid Infrastructure service, and it can provision applications and middleware in addition to Oracle homes.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. RHP is a Grid Infrastructure service, not a Database service.
  • C. RHP can be used to provision applications, not just Oracle software homes.
  • E. RHP can be used to provision middleware components.

Question 16

Which two are true about OS groups and users for Oracle Grid Infrastructure and the Oracle Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)? (Choose two.)

  1. By default, members of the OSASM group can access Automatic Storage Management and RDBMS instances.
  2. The primary group for the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database owners must be the Oracle Inventory group.
  3. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation must be owned by the grid user.
  4. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner owns Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management binaries.
  5. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner must have OSOPER, OSBACKUPDBA, and OSKMDBA as secondary groups.
  6. The same OSDBA group must be used for Automatic Storage Management and the Oracle Database.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, D. The primary group for the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database owners must be the Oracle Inventory group; The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner owns Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management binaries.

The Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation must be owned by the grid user, a dedicated account for managing Grid Infrastructure components (option C corrected to option B context - the grid user owns the installation and associated binaries). The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner owns Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management binaries, making the grid user responsible for these critical components (option D). These are fundamental requirements in Oracle Grid Infrastructure deployment where the grid user is the dedicated operating system account for GI ownership, distinct from the Oracle Database owner (oracle user). The OSASM group members have access to ASM, not both ASM and RDBMS by default. The primary group can be oinstall (Oracle Inventory group) or other groups. Different OSDBA groups can exist for ASM and Database. OSOPER, OSBACKUPDBA, and OSKMDBA are optional secondary groups depending on role separation requirements.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Members of OSASM group have access only to ASM, not to both ASM and RDBMS instances.
  • C. This is true but not one of the two correct answers in this question's scope.
  • E. While these are important OS groups, they are not mandatory secondary groups; they enable role separation but are not required.
  • F. Different OSDBA groups can be used for ASM and Database; they need not be the same.

Question 17

The USERS tablespace consists of data files 3 and 4 and must always be online in read/write mode. Which two are true about using RMAN to perform an open database back up of this tablespace? (Choose two.)

  1. Backups must be done incrementally.
  2. Backups must be contained in backup sets.
  3. Backups can be taken only if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode.
  4. Backups can be done incrementally.
  5. The database must be registered in an RMAN catalog.
  6. Only consistent backups can be created.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C, D. Backups can be taken only if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode; Backups can be done incrementally.

When performing open database backups with RMAN on a tablespace that must always remain online in read/write mode, the database must be in ARCHIVELOG mode to ensure consistency and recoverability, making C correct. Backups can be done incrementally (D is correct), allowing for efficient incremental backup strategies that only capture changed blocks since the last backup.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Backups do not have to be done incrementally; full backups are also a valid option for open database backups.
  • B. Backups do not have to be contained in backup sets; image copies are a valid alternative backup format.
  • E. The database does not have to be registered in an RMAN catalog; RMAN can operate with the recovery catalog repository or without one.
  • F. Consistent backups are not the only option; incremental backups provide flexibility in backup strategies.

Question 18

Which two are true about Oracle Optimizer Statistics, their use, and their collection? (Choose two.)

  1. The number of table rows is considered when evaluating the cost of accessing a table using an index.
  2. Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index.
  3. The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.
  4. Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS always yield the best optimizer result.
  5. The Statistics Advisor generates actions for all recommendations.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, C. Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index; The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.

Index balanced B*Tree height is evaluated by the optimizer when determining the cost of using an index for data retrieval, as a taller tree requires more I/Os. The Statistics Advisor provides recommendations for improving statistics collection strategies and helps identify which objects need statistics, guiding the best approach for gathering statistics in the database.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. While table row count is a statistic, the cost of index access is determined primarily by index structure metrics like height and selectivity, not simply the number of table rows.
  • D. Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS do not always yield the best optimizer results; poorly gathered statistics or stale statistics can lead to suboptimal plans.
  • E. The Statistics Advisor generates recommendations but does not automatically generate actions for all recommendations; the DBA must evaluate and implement them.

Question 19

A user complains about poor database performance. You want to verify if the user's session has waited for certain types of I/O activity. Which view displays all waits waited on by a session at least once?

  1. V$SESSION_EVENT
  2. V$SESSTAT
  3. V$SESSION_WAIT
  4. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS
  5. V$SESSION
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. V$SESSION_EVENT

V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits waited on by a session at least once, including cumulative statistics on wait events. This view provides a comprehensive history of all types of I/O and other waits that the session has experienced, making it the appropriate view for verifying whether a user's session has waited for certain types of I/O activity. The other views provide different information: V$SESSTAT shows session statistics, V$SESSION_WAIT shows current waits, V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS shows waits by class, and V$SESSION shows general session information.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. V$SESSTAT displays session statistics, not specifically wait events.
  • C. V$SESSION_WAIT shows only current waits, not historical waits.
  • D. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS shows wait events grouped by class but is less detailed than V$SESSION_EVENT.
  • E. V$SESSION shows general session information, not detailed wait event history.

Question 20

Which three are true? (Choose three.)

  1. Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies on objects in an application root are automatically synchronized with all application PDBs contained in the application container.
  2. Application-common TSDP policies are always container specific.
  3. Application-common Transparent Security Data Protection (TSDP) policies can be created only within an application install/patch BEGIN-END block.
  4. Application-common Oracle Label Security (OLS) policies cannot be created in an application root outside an install/patch BEGIN-END block.
  5. Fine-grained auditing (FGA) policies in an application root are automatically synchronized to all application PDBs contained in the application container.
  6. Application-common OLS policies can be created in an application root inside an install/patch BEGIN-END block.
  7. Unified auditing can be automatically synchronized to all application PDBs in an application container.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, C, G. Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies on objects in an application root are automatically synchronized with all application PDBs contained in the application container; Application-common Transparent Security Data Protection (TSDP) policies can be created only within an application install/patch BEGIN-END block; Unified auditing can be automatically synchronized to all application PDBs in an application container.

VPD policies on objects in an application root are automatically synchronized with all application PDBs (option A). Application-common TSDP policies can be created only within an application install/patch BEGIN-END block (option C), ensuring controlled policy deployment. Unified auditing can be automatically synchronized to all application PDBs in an application container (option G), providing consistent audit coverage across the container.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Application-common TSDP policies are not container-specific; they are part of the application definition and synchronize across PDBs.
  • D. Application-common OLS policies can be created both inside and outside BEGIN-END blocks, depending on the installation phase.
  • E. Fine-grained auditing policies in an application root are not automatically synchronized; they must be individually configured.
  • F. While OLS policies can be created inside BEGIN-END blocks, they can also be created outside these blocks depending on context.

Question 21

A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode. Full RMAN backups are taken daily and no backup to trace has been taken of the control file. A media failure has occurred. In which two scenarios is complete recovery possible? (Choose two.)

  1. when any archived log from, before, or after the most recent backup is corrupt.
  2. after losing all copies of the control file
  3. after losing an archived log from after the most recent backup
  4. after losing an archived log from before the most recent backup
  5. after losing the SYSTEM tablespace
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D, E. after losing an archived log from before the most recent backup; after losing the SYSTEM tablespace

Complete recovery is possible after losing an archived log from after the most recent backup because the database can recover to the point of the backup and does not need logs beyond that point for basic recovery. Complete recovery is possible after losing the SYSTEM tablespace because RMAN backups include all tablespaces including SYSTEM, and recovery can restore it. However, losing any archived log before or after a backup, or losing all control files without a backup to trace, prevents complete recovery because archived logs are essential for roll-forward recovery and control files are needed to orchestrate the recovery process.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Losing archived logs from any point prevents complete recovery because roll-forward requires all consecutive logs.
  • B. Without a backup to trace, losing all control files prevents complete recovery regardless of backups.
  • C. Archived logs after the most recent backup are not essential for recovery to that backup point.

Question 22

Which two are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)

  1. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the 12 hours of activity.
  2. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot.
  3. A DBA can run it manually.
  4. Results are written to the alert log.
  5. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the last day of activity.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, C. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot; A DBA can run it manually.

ADDM runs automatically after each AWR snapshot is taken, analyzing the performance data collected during that snapshot interval. A DBA can run ADDM manually at any time to perform on-demand analysis of database performance issues. ADDM analyzes a time period corresponding to the last AWR snapshot interval, typically one hour by default, not 12 hours or one full day. Results are not written to the alert log; ADDM output is accessed through reports and the database repository, not alert log entries.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. ADDM analyzes the period between AWR snapshots, typically one hour, not 12 hours.
  • D. ADDM results are stored in the repository and accessed via reports, not written to the alert log.
  • E. ADDM analyzes the period since the last AWR snapshot, not the last day of activity.

Question 23

Which three are true about requirements for various FLASHBACK operations? (Choose three.)

  1. FLASHBACK transaction query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
  2. FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.
  3. FLASHBACK version query requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON.
  4. FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE requires undo to store all versions of all rows of a table being tracked.
  5. FLASHBACK drop requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
  6. FLASHBACK version query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, B, F. FLASHBACK transaction query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time; FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON; FLASHBACK version query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.

FLASHBACK transaction query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time, allowing you to see what changed and by whom. FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLEBIN parameter be set to ON, as the recyclebin is where dropped objects are stored before permanent deletion. FLASHBACK version query requires undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time, similar to transaction query but without the transaction information. FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE does not require undo; it uses Flashback Data Archive tables to store historical versions. FLASHBACK drop does not require undo since it recovers objects from the recyclebin, not from undo. RECYCLEBIN is not required for version query; only undo is required.

Why the other options are wrong

  • C. FLASHBACK version query requires undo, not the RECYCLEBIN parameter.
  • D. FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE uses dedicated archive tables, not undo, to store historical versions.
  • E. FLASHBACK drop uses the recyclebin, not undo, to retrieve dropped objects.

Question 24

Which two are true about Oracle instance recovery? (Choose two.)

  1. Recovery begins from the beginning of the CURRENT redo log group.
  2. Recovery begins from the last checkpoint position that was calculated by the Database Writer before instance failure.
  3. Recovery begins from the start of any ACTIVE redo log group or the start of the CURRENT log group if no other group is ACTIVE.
  4. Recovery reads redo until the end of the redo thread. SMON rolls back any dead transactions, and then the database is opened.
  5. Recovery begins from the last checkpoint position that was recorded in the control file by the checkpoint process (CKPT).
  6. Recovery reads redo until the end of the redo thread, and then opens the database. SMON then rolls back any dead transactions.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: E, F. Recovery begins from the last checkpoint position that was recorded in the control file by the checkpoint process (CKPT); Recovery reads redo until the end of the redo thread, and then opens the database. SMON then rolls back any dead transactions.

Instance recovery begins from the last checkpoint position recorded in the control file by the checkpoint process (CKPT process), as documented in option E. This checkpoint position represents the most recent guaranteed consistency point. Recovery then reads redo until the end of the redo thread (option F), and after rolling back dead transactions by SMON, the database opens. This two-phase approach, starting from the control file checkpoint and reading to thread end before opening, ensures data consistency and transaction integrity.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Recovery does not begin from the beginning of the CURRENT redo log group; it starts from the last recorded checkpoint.
  • B. The Database Writer's calculation is not the source for recovery starting point; the control file checkpoint is authoritative.
  • C. Recovery does not begin from ACTIVE redo log groups; it begins from the control file checkpoint position.
  • D. The database opens after rolling back dead transactions, not before SMON's rollback work, so the sequence is incorrect.

Question 25

Which three are true about the SQL Tuning Advisor? (Choose three.)

  1. It checks each query being analyzed for stale statistics.
  2. It checks each query being analyzed for missing statistics.
  3. It only recommends syntactic changes to SQL statements.
  4. It can recommend semantic changes to SQL statements.
  5. It considers all SQL statements being analyzed by the advisor task as a group.
  6. It builds SQL profiles for each poorly performing SQL statement to prevent regressions.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, B, D. It checks each query being analyzed for stale statistics; It checks each query being analyzed for missing statistics; It can recommend semantic changes to SQL statements.

SQL Tuning Advisor checks each query for stale statistics that may cause suboptimal execution plans, and checks for missing statistics that could impair optimizer decisions. It can recommend semantic changes to SQL statements, such as adding hints or restructuring queries, not just syntactic corrections. The advisor analyzes each SQL statement individually, optimizing recommendations per statement rather than treating all statements as a group. It can build SQL profiles to prevent regressions, but this is one of several possible recommendations rather than a requirement for all poorly performing statements.

Why the other options are wrong

  • C. SQL Tuning Advisor can recommend semantic changes, not only syntactic changes.
  • E. SQL Tuning Advisor considers each SQL statement individually, not as a group.
  • F. SQL profiles are one possible recommendation but are not built for every poorly performing statement.

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Question 26

Which two are true about RMAN encryption? (Choose two.)

  1. RMAN encryption keys are stored in a database keystore.
  2. RMAN can encrypt the Oracle Database password file.
  3. Dual-mode encrypted backups can be restored only if both the password and the keystore used for encryption are available.
  4. The SET ENCRYPTION command overrides encryption settings specified by the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION command.
  5. Password encryption can be persistently configured using the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION command.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, D. RMAN encryption keys are stored in a database keystore; The SET ENCRYPTION command overrides encryption settings specified by the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION command.

RMAN encryption keys are stored in a database keystore (option A), which is the secure repository for encryption credentials used during backup and restore operations. The SET ENCRYPTION command overrides encryption settings specified by the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION command (option D), allowing session-level control to supersede persistent configuration when needed.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. RMAN cannot encrypt the Oracle Database password file; password file protection uses different mechanisms.
  • C. Dual-mode encrypted backups can be restored with either the password or the keystore, providing flexibility in recovery scenarios.
  • E. Password encryption is configured persistently using the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION PASSWORD command, not the general CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION command.

Question 27

Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager to write backups to tape when there are only two tape drives? (Choose two.)

  1. SBT tape compression can be used even if no RMAN compression is configured.
  2. Any backup set written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup pieces.
  3. Any backup written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup sets.
  4. SBT tape compression and RMAN backup compression should be used in parallel.
  5. The SBT device should be configured to use PARALLELISM 2 to allow both tape drive to be used simultaneously.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, E. SBT tape compression can be used even if no RMAN compression is configured; The SBT device should be configured to use PARALLELISM 2 to allow both tape drive to be used simultaneously.

SBT tape compression operates at the media manager level and can be enabled independently of RMAN compression settings, allowing compression even when RMAN compression is not configured. PARALLELISM 2 should be configured on the SBT device to enable both tape drives to be used simultaneously for parallel backup operations, maximizing throughput and device utilization.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Backup sets can contain multiple backup pieces; the number of pieces is not limited to the number of tape drives available.
  • C. A single backup set is not limited to two backup sets; multiple backup sets can be created and written to tape.
  • D. SBT tape compression and RMAN backup compression should not be used in parallel, as this can degrade performance; one compression method should be chosen.

Question 28

Which two are true about Recovery Manager (RMAN) diagnostic message output? (Choose two.)

  1. Media Management messages for SBT devices are always written to sbtio.log.
  2. RMAN error stacks should be read from the bottom up as that is the order in which errors are generated.
  3. RMAN error stacks should be read from the top down as that is the order in which errors are generated.
  4. The RMAN LOG command line clause causes output issued during RMAN command compilation to be written to a log file and to standard output.
  5. The RMAN LOG command line clause causes output issued during RMAN command compilation to be written to a log file only.
  6. Media Management messages for SBT devices are written to an Oracle trace file.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, E. RMAN error stacks should be read from the bottom up as that is the order in which errors are generated; The RMAN LOG command line clause causes output issued during RMAN command compilation to be written to a log file only.

RMAN error stacks should be read from the bottom up because that is the order in which errors are generated, the root cause appears at the bottom. The RMAN LOG command line clause causes output to be written to a log file only, not to standard output; compilation output goes to the log file specified. Media Management messages for SBT devices are written to Oracle trace files, which are part of the diagnostic framework. The sbtio.log file receives only specific Media Management trace output, not all SBT messages.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Media Management messages for SBT devices are not always written to sbtio.log.
  • C. RMAN error stacks should be read from the bottom up, not top down.
  • D. The RMAN LOG clause writes output to a log file only, not to standard output.
  • F. While some SBT messages go to trace files, the LOG clause specifically directs compilation output to the log file.

Question 29

Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)

  1. By default, AWR snapshots are taken every 60 minutes.
  2. Its collection level is determined by the value of the STATISTICS_LEVEL database parameter.
  3. By default, AWR snapshots are retained for 7 days.
  4. The taking of AWR snapshots can be disabled.
  5. AWR data is stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, B, D. By default, AWR snapshots are taken every 60 minutes; Its collection level is determined by the value of the STATISTICS_LEVEL database parameter; The taking of AWR snapshots can be disabled.

AWR snapshots are taken every 60 minutes by default (option A). The collection level is determined by the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter (option B), which controls the depth of statistical information gathered. The taking of AWR snapshots can be disabled (option D) through database parameter configuration when needed. While snapshots are retained for 7 days by default, they are stored in the SYSAUX tablespace, not the SYSTEM tablespace, making option E incorrect.

Why the other options are wrong

  • C. AWR snapshots are retained for 7 days by default, so this statement itself is true, but it is not among the three correct answers for this specific question set.
  • E. AWR data is stored in the SYSAUX tablespace, not the SYSTEM tablespace.

Question 30

Which three are true about managing memory components in an Oracle database instance? (Choose three.)

  1. With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Large Pool size by reducing the Shared Pool size.
  2. With Automatic Memory Management, the database instance can increase the System Global Area size by reducing the Program Global Area size.
  3. Automatically tuned and resized System Global Area components will always revert to their initial sizes after an instance restart.
  4. Automatic Memory Management must be used together with locking the System Global Area into physical memory.
  5. With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Program Global Area size by reducing the System Global Area size.
  6. On Line Transaction Processing systems often use less Program Global Area than Decision Support Systems.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, B, F. With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Large Pool size by reducing the Shared Pool size; With Automatic Memory Management, the database instance can increase the System Global Area size by reducing the Program Global Area size; On Line Transaction Processing systems often use less Program Global Area than Decision Support Systems.

With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database can dynamically adjust individual SGA components like the Large Pool by reducing others like the Shared Pool. With Automatic Memory Management, the database can increase the SGA size by reducing the PGA size, redistributing memory between these two major allocations. OLTP systems typically use less PGA than DSS systems because DSS workloads involve large sorting and hash join operations that consume more program memory. Automatically tuned components do not revert to initial sizes after restart, and Automatic Memory Management does not require locking SGA into physical memory.

Why the other options are wrong

  • C. Automatically tuned SGA components maintain their dynamically adjusted sizes across instance restarts.
  • D. Automatic Memory Management does not require locking the SGA into physical memory.
  • E. The PGA cannot be increased by reducing the SGA; only individual SGA components can be adjusted by each other.

Question 31

Which three are true about monitoring waits for sessions and services? (Choose three.)

  1. V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits for all past and existing sessions if the wait has occurred at least once for a session.
  2. V$SERVICE_EVENT displays all waits for all services if the wait has occurred at least once for a service.
  3. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS displays waits broken down by wait class only for waiting sessions.
  4. V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a non-waiting session last waited.
  5. V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits for all past sessions if the wait has occurred at least once for a session.
  6. V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a session is currently waiting.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, D, F. V$SERVICE_EVENT displays all waits for all services if the wait has occurred at least once for a service; V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a non-waiting session last waited; V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a session is currently waiting.

V$SERVICE_EVENT displays all waits for all services if the wait has occurred at least once for a service, providing service-level wait statistics (option B). V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a session is currently waiting, representing the current wait state of active sessions (option F). Additionally, both V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION contain details of the event on which a non-waiting session last waited, providing historical wait information even for sessions not currently waiting (option D). V$SESSION_EVENT shows waits for both current and past sessions, but only if the wait occurred at least once. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS displays waits for all sessions (both waiting and non-waiting) broken down by wait class, not just waiting sessions.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. V$SESSION_EVENT shows waits for both current and past sessions, not all past sessions exclusively.
  • C. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS includes data for non-waiting sessions, not only waiting sessions.
  • E. V$SESSION_EVENT displays waits for both current and past sessions, not past sessions exclusively.

Question 32

Which four are true about a Recovery Manager (RMAN) duplication without a TARGET connection? (Choose four.)

  1. The NOREDO clause must be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
  2. The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the TARGET instance.
  3. RMAN "pushes" the backups of the database to be duplicated over the network to the auxiliary instance.
  4. The NOREDO clause can be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in ARCHIVELOG mode.
  5. RMAN SBT-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance.
  6. The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is closed.
  7. The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is opened.
  8. RMAN disk-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, D, E, H. The NOREDO clause must be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in NOARCHIVELOG mode; The NOREDO clause can be used if the backups of the database being duplicated were taken when the database was in ARCHIVELOG mode; RMAN SBT-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance; RMAN disk-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance.

The NOREDO clause can be used when backups were taken in ARCHIVELOG mode (option D) because archived logs can be applied for recovery instead. RMAN SBT-based backups (option E) and disk-based backups (option H) can both be used by the auxiliary instance during duplication. The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required (option A) when no connection exists to the TARGET instance, as the auxiliary instance must know how to construct its undo tablespace without querying the target.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is required when no TARGET connection exists, but the statement claims it is always required in all scenarios, which is overly broad.
  • C. RMAN pulls backups from the source to the auxiliary instance; it does not push backups to the auxiliary side.
  • F. The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is required when no TARGET connection exists; the specific condition about a closed recovery catalog is not the determining factor.
  • G. The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is required when no TARGET connection exists regardless of whether the recovery catalog is open or closed.

Question 33

Which three are located by using environment variables? (Choose three.)

  1. the Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA) compliant path to store Oracle software and configuration files.
  2. the location of Oracle Net Services configuration files
  3. the list of a disk group names to be mounted by an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance at startup
  4. default directories for temporary files used by temporary tablespaces
  5. the temporary disk space used by Oracle Installer during installation
  6. the maximum number of database files that can be opened by a database instance
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, B, E. the Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA) compliant path to store Oracle software and configuration files; the location of Oracle Net Services configuration files; the temporary disk space used by Oracle Installer during installation

ORACLE_BASE points to the Optimal Flexible Architecture root that holds Oracle software and configuration files. TNS_ADMIN points to the directory of the Oracle Net configuration files. The TMP and TMPDIR environment variables tell Oracle Universal Installer where to write its temporary files during installation.

Why the other options are wrong

  • C. The disk groups an ASM instance mounts at startup are set by the ASM_DISKGROUPS initialization parameter, not an environment variable.
  • D. Tempfile locations are set by the CREATE TABLESPACE statement or by the DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST parameter, not by an environment variable.
  • F. The maximum number of open database files is controlled by the DB_FILES initialization parameter, not an environment variable.

Question 34

A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode. A full RMAN backup exists but no control file backup to trace has been taken. A media failure has occurred. In which two scenarios is incomplete recovery required? (Choose two.)

  1. after losing a SYSAUX tablespace data file
  2. after losing all members of an INACTIVE online redo log group
  3. after losing all members of the CURRENT online redo log group
  4. after losing all copies of the control file
  5. after losing an UNDO tablespace that is in use
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C, D. after losing all members of the CURRENT online redo log group; after losing all copies of the control file

After losing all members of the CURRENT online redo log group, incomplete recovery is required because the current log cannot be recovered and forward recovery cannot continue to the present time. After losing all copies of the control file without a backup to trace, incomplete recovery is required because the control file cannot be recreated with exact information about datafile status and checkpoint positions, necessitating point-in-time recovery.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Losing a SYSAUX tablespace datafile allows complete recovery using full backup and archive logs.
  • B. Losing all members of an INACTIVE redo log group allows complete recovery since those logs have already been archived.
  • E. Losing an in-use UNDO tablespace allows complete recovery using full backup and archive logs; this is not a media failure requiring incomplete recovery.

Question 35

Which two are true about data movement between a non-CDB and a PDB using Data Pump? (Choose two.)

  1. Tablespaces are automatically created as needed while importing full exports in either a non-CDB or a PDB.
  2. Oracle attempts to convert conventional database users to local users when moving schemas from a non-CDB to a PDB.
  3. A new PDB is automatically created when importing a non-CDB into a CDB.
  4. Oracle attempts to convert common users to conventional users when moving schemas from a PDB to a non-CDB.
  5. Moving data from a PDB to a non-CDB is only possible by using transportable tablespace export and import.
  6. Moving data from a non-CDB to a PDB is only possible by using conventional export and import.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, D. Oracle attempts to convert conventional database users to local users when moving schemas from a non-CDB to a PDB; Oracle attempts to convert common users to conventional users when moving schemas from a PDB to a non-CDB.

Oracle automatically attempts to convert conventional database users from a non-CDB to local users when importing into a PDB, adapting the user model to the multitenant architecture. When moving schemas from a PDB back to a non-CDB, Oracle attempts to convert common users to conventional users since the non-CDB does not support the common user model.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Tablespaces are not automatically created during import; they must exist or be created through the REMAP_TABLESPACE parameter.
  • C. A PDB is not automatically created when importing a non-CDB export; the PDB must be created beforehand.
  • E. Data movement from PDB to non-CDB can be done using Data Pump export and import, not only transportable tablespace.
  • F. Data movement from non-CDB to PDB can be done using Data Pump, transportable tablespaces, or other methods, not only conventional export and import.

Question 36

Examine the command for creating pluggable database PDB2 in container database CDB2. Select three options, any one of which is required for it to execute successfully. (Choose three.)

  1. Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
  2. Add only the CREATE_FILE_DEST clause to the statement.
  3. Set only the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
  4. Set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter and enable OMF.
  5. Enable only OMF.
  6. Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and enable Oracle Managed Files (OMF)
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, C, E. Add only the CREATE_FILE_DEST clause to the statement; Set only the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter; Enable only OMF.

When creating a pluggable database, Oracle requires a mechanism to convert source database file paths to new PDB file paths. This can be accomplished through three independent approaches: (B) using the CREATE_FILE_DEST clause alone, which automatically places all datafiles in a specified destination directory; (C) setting only the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter, which explicitly maps old file paths to new ones; or (E) enabling Oracle Managed Files (OMF) alone, which automatically generates file names and locations according to OMF naming conventions. Any one of these three options provides sufficient file handling capability for the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to execute successfully.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Combining FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause with PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter is redundant and not required; either mechanism alone suffices.
  • D. While setting PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT with OMF works, this combination is not a minimal requirement since PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT alone (option C) is sufficient.
  • F. Combining FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause with OMF is not required; either approach independently provides the necessary file mapping capability.

Question 37

Which three are true about an application seed pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose three.)

  1. It is automatically synchronized with its application root PDB when an application is upgraded.
  2. It cannot be added to an application container after the application container has already been created.
  3. A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an old version of the application installed after cloning completes.
  4. It is automatically synchronized with its application root PDB when an application is installed.
  5. It cannot be dropped from its application container.
  6. A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an up-to-date version of the application installed after cloning completes.
  7. It is not required in an application container.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C, F, G. A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an old version of the application installed after cloning completes; A new application PDB created by cloning an application seed PDB can have an up-to-date version of the application installed after cloning completes; It is not required in an application container.

An application seed PDB is a template within an application container that can be cloned to create new application PDBs. When cloned, the new PDB can have either an old version or current version of the application installed after cloning completes, providing flexibility in application deployment. An application seed PDB is not required in an application container; you can have an application container without a seed PDB. Application seeds can be added to an application container after creation, they are not automatically synchronized during install or upgrade, and they can be dropped from the container.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Application seed PDBs are not automatically synchronized when applications are upgraded.
  • B. Application seeds can be added to an application container after it is created.
  • D. Application seed PDBs are not automatically synchronized when applications are installed.
  • E. Application seed PDBs can be dropped from their application container.

Question 38

Which two are true about automatic block repair? (Choose two.)

  1. Automatic block repair can repair blocks with no standby database if DB_BLOCK_CHECKING = TRUE.
  2. Real-Time Query must be enabled on a physical standby database for automatic block repair to be done on that physical standby database.
  3. Real-Time Query must be enabled on a primary database for automatic block repair to be done on any of its physical standby databases.
  4. It is not possible for media corrupt blocks.
  5. Real-Time Query must be enabled on a physical standby database for automatic block repair to be done on its primary database.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, E. Real-Time Query must be enabled on a physical standby database for automatic block repair to be done on that physical standby database; Real-Time Query must be enabled on a physical standby database for automatic block repair to be done on its primary database.

Real-Time Query must be enabled on a physical standby database for automatic block repair to be done on that physical standby database (option B). Additionally, Real-Time Query must be enabled on a physical standby database for automatic block repair to be done on its primary database (option E), establishing the dependency chain where standby activation enables primary-side repair capabilities. These two conditions work together to provide bidirectional automatic block repair in a Data Guard environment.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Automatic block repair requires a standby database and cannot function with only DB_BLOCK_CHECKING enabled.
  • C. Real-Time Query on the primary does not enable repair on standby; the requirement is reversed.
  • D. Automatic block repair can repair media corrupt blocks through reconstruction from the standby copy.

Question 39

Which three are true about performing an Oracle Database install on Linux? (Choose three.)

  1. The runfixup.sh script can install missing RPMs.
  2. The Oracle Preinstallation RPM must be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group.
  3. It allows you to select the languages supported by the Oracle database server.
  4. It can be done before installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server.
  5. The Oracle Preinstallation RPM can be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group.
  6. It can be done after installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server.
  7. The Oracle database administrator must be granted access to the root operating system account to tun root privileged scripts.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D, E, F. It can be done before installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server; The Oracle Preinstallation RPM can be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group; It can be done after installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server.

Oracle Database installation on Linux can be done before installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server (option D) as Grid Infrastructure is optional for standalone deployments. Installation can also be done after installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server (option F), providing flexibility in deployment sequencing. The Oracle Preinstallation RPM can be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group (option E), automating prerequisite setup and user configuration.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. The runfixup.sh script is used to fix configuration issues, not to install missing RPMs; rpm install commands handle RPM installation.
  • B. The Oracle Preinstallation RPM performs the configuration rather than being mandatory; installation can proceed without it with manual setup.
  • C. Language selection is not a standard feature of the Oracle Database installation on Linux; language support is determined by the operating system.
  • G. The Oracle database administrator does not require root access to run root-privileged scripts; they can be executed with sudo or other privilege escalation mechanisms.

Question 40

Which three are true in Oracle 19c and later releases? (Choose three.)

  1. If the password file location changes, then the new location is used automatically by the Oracle Server.
  2. Schema Only accounts can be granted administrator privileges.
  3. All the Oracle-supplied accounts are Schema Only accounts.
  4. Privilege Analysis is included in Oracle Enterprise Edition and no longer requires Database Vault.
  5. Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued indirectly by an audited user.
  6. Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued directly by an audited user.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, D, F. Schema Only accounts can be granted administrator privileges; Privilege Analysis is included in Oracle Enterprise Edition and no longer requires Database Vault; Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued directly by an audited user.

Schema Only accounts can be granted administrator privileges, making B correct. Oracle-supplied accounts are not all Schema Only accounts, so C is false. Privilege Analysis is included in Oracle Enterprise Edition without requiring Database Vault, making D correct. Unified Auditing can be configured to audit events issued directly by an audited user (F is correct) or indirectly (E), but the question asks about mutually exclusive audit configurations, making F the more precise correct answer alongside the others.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. If the password file location changes, the new location must be explicitly configured; it is not used automatically by the Oracle Server.
  • C. Not all Oracle-supplied accounts are Schema Only accounts; some are traditional accounts with different characteristics.
  • E. While Unified Auditing can audit indirect events, option F is the correct statement about direct auditing capability.

Question 41

Which two are true about gathering optimizer statistics? (Choose two.)

  1. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open PDBs except PDB$SEED.
  2. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to a PDB opened in read/write mode gathers object statistics for that PDB.
  3. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics only in CDB$ROOT.
  4. System statistics can be gathered only while connected to CDB$ROOT.
  5. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics in all open pluggable databases (PDBs)
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, C. Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to a PDB opened in read/write mode gathers object statistics for that PDB; Executing DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS while connected to CDB$ROOT gathers object statistics only in CDB$ROOT.

When DBMS_STATS.GATHER_DATABASE_STATS is executed while connected to a PDB opened in read/write mode, it gathers object statistics for that specific PDB only. When executed from CDB$ROOT, it gathers object statistics only in CDB$ROOT and does not automatically gather statistics for PDBs. System statistics can be gathered from any container, not exclusively from CDB$ROOT. The procedure behaves at the container level, statistics gathered apply to the container you are currently connected to.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Executing GATHER_DATABASE_STATS from CDB$ROOT gathers statistics only in CDB$ROOT, not in all open PDBs.
  • D. System statistics can be gathered while connected to any PDB, not only CDB$ROOT.
  • E. Executing GATHER_DATABASE_STATS from CDB$ROOT gathers statistics only in CDB$ROOT, not in all open PDBs.

Question 42

Which two are true about duplicating pluggable databases (PDBs) with RMAN? (Choose two.)

  1. Two or more PDBs can be duplicated with the same RMAN DUPLICATE command.
  2. All tablespaces belonging to a PDB must be duplicated when duplicating the PDB.
  3. The auxiliary instance is automatically created with ENABLE_PLUGGABLE_DATABASE = TRUE.
  4. A user with SYSDBA or SYSBKUP must use RMAN logged in to a PDB in order to duplicate it.
  5. CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are automatically duplicated if a PDB is duplicated.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, E. Two or more PDBs can be duplicated with the same RMAN DUPLICATE command; CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are automatically duplicated if a PDB is duplicated.

Multiple PDBs can be duplicated with a single RMAN DUPLICATE command by specifying multiple source and destination PDB names. When duplicating a PDB, the CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are automatically duplicated along with the target PDB because they are essential structural components of the container database that the PDB depends on.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Not all tablespaces must be duplicated; you can selectively duplicate specific tablespaces if needed.
  • C. The auxiliary instance is not automatically created with ENABLE_PLUGGABLE_DATABASE set; this parameter must be manually configured before duplication.
  • D. A user with SYSDBA or SYSBACKUP can connect to the CDB$ROOT rather than requiring connection to a specific PDB to perform the duplication.

Question 43

Which four are true about duplicating a database using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose four.)

  1. Duplication can be done by having the auxiliary database instance pull backup sets from the target database instance.
  2. A connection to an auxiliary instance is always required.
  3. A subset of the target database can be duplicated.
  4. A new DBID is always created for the duplicated database.
  5. A connection to the recovery catalog instance is always required.
  6. A backup of the target database is always required.
  7. Duplication can be done by having the target database instance push copies to the auxiliary database instance.
  8. A connection to the target database instance is always required.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, B, C, G. Duplication can be done by having the auxiliary database instance pull backup sets from the target database instance; A connection to an auxiliary instance is always required; A subset of the target database can be duplicated; Duplication can be done by having the target database instance push copies to the auxiliary database instance.

Duplication can be performed with the auxiliary instance pulling backup sets from the target database instance (option A). A connection to an auxiliary instance is always required to perform the duplication (option B). A subset of the target database can be duplicated using RMAN, allowing selective duplication of specific tablespaces or datafiles (option C). Duplication can also be performed by having the target database instance push copies to the auxiliary database instance (option G). A new DBID is created for duplicated databases, but this is not always the case; the duplicate can retain the same DBID if desired. A recovery catalog connection is not always required; it is optional. A backup of the target database is not always required; RMAN can duplicate using active datafile copies without a prior backup.

Why the other options are wrong

  • D. RMAN can create a duplicate with the same DBID or generate a new one; a new DBID is not always created.
  • E. Recovery catalog connection is optional; duplication can occur without it.
  • F. A backup is not always required; RMAN can duplicate using active datafiles without a prior backup.

Question 44

A container database (CDB) contains two pluggable databases PDB1 and PDB2. The LOCAL_UNDO_ENABLED database property is set to FALSE in the CDB. Data file 24 of PDB2 was deleted and you need to restore and recover it. The only RMAN backup that exists was created with the BACKUP DATABASE command while connected to CDB$ROOT. Which three are true? (Choose three.)

  1. Data file 24 can be recovered only while connected to PDB2.
  2. Data file 24 can be restored and recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT.
  3. Data file 24 can be restored only while connected to CDB$ROOT.
  4. Data file 24 can be restored only while connected to PDB2.
  5. Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to PDB2.
  6. Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, E, F. Data file 24 can be restored and recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT; Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to PDB2; Data file 24 can be recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT.

Since the RMAN backup was taken while connected to CDB$ROOT with the BACKUP DATABASE command, it includes all PDBs. Datafile 24 can be restored and recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT because the backup contains all necessary information. Additionally, datafile 24 can be recovered while connected to PDB2 since the recovery operation can be initiated from the specific PDB. Both recovery locations are valid when working with a full CDB-level backup.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Datafile 24 can be recovered while connected to CDB$ROOT as well as PDB2.
  • C. Datafile 24 can be restored while connected to CDB$ROOT since the backup was taken at the CDB level.
  • D. Datafile 24 can be restored while connected to CDB$ROOT, not only while connected to PDB2.

Question 45

While backing up to an SBT channel, you determine that the read phase of your compressed Recovery Manager (RMAN) incremental level 0 backup is a bottleneck. FORCE LOGGING is enabled for the database. Which two could improve read performance? (Choose two.)

  1. Increase the size of tape I/O buffers.
  2. Disable FORCE LOGGING for the database.
  3. Increase the size of the database buffer cache.
  4. Enable asynchronous disk I/O.
  5. Increase the level of RMAN multiplexing.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D, E. Enable asynchronous disk I/O; Increase the level of RMAN multiplexing.

Enabling asynchronous disk I/O allows the database to issue multiple I/O operations without waiting for each to complete, improving read throughput during the backup read phase. Increasing RMAN multiplexing allows multiple backup channels to read data in parallel from the database, which directly reduces the bottleneck by distributing the read workload across multiple processes. Increasing tape I/O buffer size helps with write performance to tape, not read performance from disk. Disabling FORCE LOGGING would not improve read performance, as FORCE LOGGING affects write behavior and redo log generation. Increasing the buffer cache may help with cached reads but does not address the fundamental I/O bottleneck in a read-intensive incremental backup.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Tape I/O buffer size affects write performance to the tape device, not read performance from the database.
  • B. FORCE LOGGING does not impact read performance; it controls whether changes are logged, affecting write-side behavior.
  • C. While a larger buffer cache may help with some cached data, it does not directly address the read-phase bottleneck in an RMAN backup scenario.

That was 45 of 181.

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