59 free ISC2 CISSP-ISSAP practice questions from the CertStash pack of 237, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. The rule is the same for every exam: ten free on the product page, 59 free here, all 237 in the pack, and each step includes the one before it.
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Question 1
A security architect applying SABSA must turn vague stakeholder statements, such as a demand that a service be trustworthy, into normalized business requirements, each with a definition and a measurable performance target, so that every control can be traced back to a business need. Which SABSA component is designed for this work?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Attributes Profiling, the Business Requirements Engineering Framework
SABSA is a business-driven, risk and opportunity focused method, and its Business Requirements Engineering Framework is known as Attributes Profiling. The architect expresses what the business needs as a set of business attributes, each given a clear definition and a performance target, so the requirement becomes specific and measurable. Because later design decisions and controls are mapped back to these attributes, the architecture keeps two-way traceability between controls and business objectives, which is how SABSA keeps security spending tied to real business needs.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. The Policy Architecture Framework is a separate SABSA framework concerned with security policy, not the framework SABSA names for engineering business requirements.
- C. The Security Domain Framework is a separate SABSA framework concerned with security domains, not with converting stakeholder statements into measurable requirements.
- D. This framework manages delivered security services and their performance through life, which follows requirements engineering rather than defining the requirements in the first place.
Question 2
Which of the following terms refers to the method that allows or restricts specific types of packets from crossing over the firewall?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Packet filtering
Packet filtering is the core firewall technique that examines individual packets and allows or blocks them based on predefined rules (source/destination IP, port numbers, protocols). It operates at the network layer to control traffic crossing the firewall.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Hacking is unauthorized access to systems, not a firewall security method.
- C. Web caching improves performance by storing web content locally, unrelated to firewall packet control.
- D. Spoofing is a type of attack where attackers falsify source addresses, not a firewall filtering method.
Question 3
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company wants to encrypt its e-mails.
Which of the following will you use to accomplish this?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. PGP
PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is specifically designed for encrypting emails and is the standard choice for email encryption. It provides both encryption and digital signatures for email messages.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. PPTP is a tunneling protocol for VPN connections, not email encryption.
- C. IPSec operates at the network layer for VPN tunnels, not at the application layer for email.
- D. NTFS is a file system format, completely unrelated to email encryption.
Question 4
Peter works as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company wants to allow remote users to connect and access its private network through a dial-up connection via the Internet. All the data will be sent across a public network. For security reasons, the management wants the data sent through the Internet to be encrypted. The company plans to use a Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) connection.
Which communication protocol will Peter use to accomplish the task?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. IP Security (IPSec)
IPSec is the standard encryption protocol used with L2TP to provide security for VPN connections over the Internet. L2TP handles tunneling while IPSec encrypts the data traveling through that tunnel.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. MPPE is associated with PPTP, not L2TP, though it provides encryption.
- C. PGP is for email encryption, not for VPN tunnel encryption.
- D. DES is an encryption algorithm but not a protocol; IPSec is the proper protocol choice for L2TP security.
Question 5
Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an IP multicast group?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. IGMP
IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is specifically designed to manage IP multicast group membership. It allows devices to join and leave multicast groups and enables routers to identify which devices want to receive multicast traffic.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) maps IP addresses to MAC addresses, not related to multicast.
- B. ICMP is for error reporting and diagnostics (ping, tracert), not multicast messaging.
- C. TCP is a unicast protocol providing reliable point-to-point communication, not multicast.
Question 6
Which of the following security devices is presented to indicate some feat of service, a special accomplishment, a symbol of authority granted by taking an oath, a sign of legitimate employment or student status, or as a simple means of identification?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Badge
A badge is a physical security device that serves multiple purposes: it demonstrates authorization, indicates status or accomplishment, symbolizes legitimate employment or student status, and provides a means of identification. It is presented visibly to grant or deny access.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A sensor detects physical phenomena like motion or temperature, not a credential device.
- B. An alarm alerts to security events but does not serve as a credential or identification device.
- C. A motion detector senses movement but does not function as identification or authorization credential.
Question 7
Which of the following is a method for transforming a message into a masked form, together with a way of undoing the transformation to recover the message?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Cipher
A cipher is precisely defined as a method for transforming plaintext into masked/encrypted form and then reversing that transformation to recover the original message. This is the fundamental definition of encryption and decryption.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. CrypTool is a software application for cryptography education and analysis, not the method itself.
- C. Steganography hides information within other data (like images) rather than transforming messages through encryption.
- D. MIME is a standard for encoding email messages and attachments, not for message transformation via encryption.
Question 8
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them.
Which of the following access control models will he use?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Role-Based Access Control
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is designed to grant users access only to resources required for their specific role or job function. It restricts access based on assigned roles, ensuring users have only necessary permissions.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Policy Access Control is not a standard access control model terminology.
- B. Mandatory Access Control enforces system-wide policies set by administrators with no user discretion.
- C. Discretionary Access Control allows resource owners to decide who gets access, not restricting to role-required resources.
Question 9
Which of the following is used to authenticate asymmetric keys?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Digital signature
Digital signatures are the primary mechanism for authenticating asymmetric keys. A digital signature proves that a message or key was signed by the holder of a private key, establishing authenticity and non-repudiation. The signature is created using the private key and verified using the corresponding public key, making it the standard authentication method for asymmetric cryptography.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. MAC addresses are hardware identifiers used for local network communication and have no role in asymmetric key authentication.
- C. A demilitarized zone is a network architecture component for security segmentation, not a key authentication method.
- D. Passwords are symmetric secrets used for simple authentication but cannot authenticate asymmetric keys, which require cryptographic proof.
Question 10
A security architect is replacing a flat remote-access VPN design with a zero trust architecture based on NIST SP 800-207. Which logical component makes the final decision to grant, deny, or revoke a subject's access to a resource, using enterprise policy and inputs such as threat intelligence?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Policy engine (PE)
In the NIST SP 800-207 logical model, the policy decision point is split into the policy engine and the policy administrator. The policy engine is responsible for the ultimate decision to grant access to a resource for a given subject: it feeds enterprise policy and external inputs, such as CDM data and threat intelligence, into a trust algorithm, then makes and logs the decision. The policy administrator executes that decision by setting up or shutting down the communication path, and the policy enforcement point enables, monitors, and terminates the connection itself.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The policy administrator executes the decision by commanding enforcement points and issuing session credentials, relying on the policy engine for the decision itself.
- C. The policy enforcement point enables, monitors, and terminates connections on instruction from the policy administrator, so it enforces a decision rather than making it.
- D. A CDM system is a data source that reports asset state to the policy engine, supplying input to the decision without making it.
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Question 11
Which of the following protocols provides certificate-based authentication for virtual private networks (VPNs)?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. L2TP
L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) supports certificate-based authentication for VPNs when used with IPSec. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) uses weaker authentication mechanisms and is considered less secure. SMTP is for email transmission and has no VPN application. HTTPS provides web encryption but is not a VPN protocol with certificate-based authentication capabilities.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. PPTP does not provide robust certificate-based authentication and is deprecated for security reasons.
- B. SMTP is an email protocol and is not used for VPN authentication.
- C. HTTPS encrypts web traffic but is not a VPN protocol designed for certificate-based authentication.
Question 12
Which of the following is a technique used for modifying messages, providing Information and Cyber security, and reducing the risk of hacking attacks during communications and message passing over the Internet?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Cryptography
Cryptography is the technique of modifying messages through encryption and encoding to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication, thereby reducing the risk of hacking attacks during internet communications. Risk analysis assesses threats but does not modify messages; OODA loop is a decision-making framework; and firewalls filter traffic but do not modify messages through encoding.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Risk analysis identifies and evaluates threats but does not modify messages for security.
- B. OODA loop is a decision-making cycle and does not involve message modification for security.
- D. Firewall security filters and blocks traffic but does not modify messages themselves.
Question 13
Which of the following security protocols provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication of network traffic with end-to-end and intermediate-hop security?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. IPSec
IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is the security protocol that provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for network traffic with both end-to-end and intermediate-hop security capabilities. SET is for e-commerce transactions, SWIPE is not a standard security protocol (and the referenced answer appears incorrect), and SKIP is an older key exchange protocol without the comprehensive security guarantees of IPSec.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. SET (Secure Electronic Transaction) is designed for e-commerce payment security, not general network traffic protection.
- C. SWIPE is not a recognized standard security protocol for network traffic protection.
- D. SKIP is an older key distribution protocol and does not provide the comprehensive end-to-end security of IPSec.
Question 14
Which of the following layers of the OSI model corresponds to the Host-to-Host layer of the TCP/IP model?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. The transport layer
The Host-to-Host layer in the TCP/IP model corresponds to the Transport layer (Layer 4) of the OSI model. Both handle end-to-end communication, flow control, and protocols like TCP and UDP.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. The presentation layer handles data formatting and encryption, not host-to-host communication.
- C. The session layer manages dialog control and session establishment, distinct from transport functions.
- D. The application layer (Layer 7) corresponds to the Application layer of TCP/IP, not the Host-to-Host layer.
Question 15
John used to work as a Network Administrator for We-are-secure Inc. Now he has resigned from the company for personal reasons. He wants to send out some secret information of the company. To do so, he takes an image file and simply uses a tool image hide and embeds the secret file within an image file of the famous actress,
Jennifer Lopez, and sends it to his Yahoo mail id. Since he is using the image file to send the data, the mail server of his company is unable to filter this mail.
Which of the following techniques is he performing to accomplish his task?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Steganography
Steganography is the technique of hiding secret information within other data or files in a way that the hidden content is not visible or detectable. John embedded a secret file within an image file of Jennifer Lopez, which is the classic definition of steganography, using a carrier medium (the image) to conceal sensitive data.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Email spoofing involves forging the sender's email address, which is not what John is doing here.
- B. Social engineering involves manipulating people into divulging confidential information, not embedding data in images.
- C. Web ripping refers to downloading or extracting content from websites, not hiding information within image files.
Question 16
Which of the following schemes is used by the Kerberos authentication?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Private key cryptography
Kerberos uses private key cryptography (symmetric encryption) as its fundamental scheme. It employs symmetric keys shared between parties and a trusted Key Distribution Center to authenticate users and services securely.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Kerberos does not use public key cryptography as its primary scheme, though modern versions may use it as an extension.
- B. One-time passwords are not the authentication scheme used by Kerberos.
- D. OPIE (One-time Passwords In Everything) is a different authentication mechanism, not used by Kerberos.
Question 17
A user is sending a large number of protocol packets to a network in order to saturate its resources and to disrupt connections to prevent communications between services.
Which type of attack is this?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Denial-of-Service attack
This describes a Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack, where an attacker sends a large volume of protocol packets to overwhelm network resources and disrupt communications. By saturating bandwidth or consuming server resources, the attacker prevents legitimate users from accessing services, which is the defining characteristic of a DoS attack.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Vulnerability attacks target specific software or system weaknesses, not resource saturation through packet flooding.
- C. Social engineering attacks manipulate people into divulging information or performing actions, unrelated to network packet flooding.
- D. Impersonation attacks involve masquerading as another entity, not sending large volumes of packets to saturate resources.
Question 18
Which of the following types of ciphers are included in the historical ciphers? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose two.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B, D. Transposition ciphers; Substitution ciphers
Transposition ciphers and Substitution ciphers are the two primary types of historical ciphers that predate modern cryptography. Substitution ciphers (like Caesar cipher) replace characters, while transposition ciphers (like rail fence) rearrange characters. Block ciphers and stream ciphers are modern cipher classifications, not historical ones.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Block ciphers are a modern cryptographic concept, not a historical cipher type.
- C. Stream ciphers are modern ciphers developed with digital computing, not historical ciphers.
Question 19
A security architect is starting a new customer portal project under the NIST Risk Management Framework (SP 800-37r2). Before any security categorization, the team must identify the stakeholders with an interest in the system and the assets that require protection. In which RMF step are these tasks performed?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Prepare
In SP 800-37r2, the Prepare step carries out essential activities at the organization, mission and business process, and system levels so the organization is ready to manage security and privacy risk. At the system level, Prepare includes identifying the mission or business focus, the system stakeholders (Task P-9), the assets that require protection (Task P-10), the authorization boundary and the information types. Doing this first gives the architect the business context, owners and protected assets that categorization and control selection later depend on.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Categorize determines the adverse impact of a loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability, and it builds on the stakeholders and assets already identified in Prepare.
- C. Select chooses, tailors and documents controls commensurate with risk, which happens after the system's context, stakeholders and assets are established.
- D. Monitor maintains ongoing awareness of the security and privacy posture once the system is operating, far too late to identify stakeholders and assets for the design.
Question 20
Which of the following protocols uses public-key cryptography to authenticate the remote computer?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. SSH
SSH (Secure Shell) uses public-key cryptography to authenticate remote computers and users, establishing encrypted tunnels for secure remote access. It supports key-based authentication where the server's public key is verified, providing a cryptographically secure mechanism for remote computer authentication.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Telnet transmits credentials in cleartext and uses no cryptography for authentication.
- C. SCP (Secure Copy) relies on SSH for its authentication; it is not the protocol itself that performs the authentication.
- D. SSL/TLS uses public-key cryptography for key exchange but typically authenticates servers via certificates rather than using public-key cryptography in the primary authentication step.
Question 21
Which of the following disaster recovery tests includes the operations that shut down at the primary site, and are shifted to the recovery site according to the disaster recovery plan?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Full-interruption test
A full-interruption test is the most comprehensive disaster recovery test where operations at the primary site are completely shut down and shifted to the recovery site according to the disaster recovery plan. This tests the actual failover process under real conditions.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A structured walk-through test is a tabletop exercise that reviews the disaster recovery plan without implementing actual failover.
- B. A simulation test simulates a disaster scenario but does not shut down the primary site or perform actual operations at the recovery site.
- D. A parallel test runs the recovery site in parallel with the primary site without shutting down primary operations.
Question 22
Which of the following types of attack can be used to break the best physical and logical security mechanism to gain access to a system?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Social engineering attack
Social engineering attacks can circumvent even the strongest physical and logical security mechanisms by exploiting human psychology and trust. Through manipulation, deception, and psychological tactics, attackers can trick authorized personnel into granting access, revealing credentials, or bypassing security controls without triggering any technical security measures.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a web application vulnerability targeting users in a browser, not a method to bypass physical security.
- C. Mail bombing is a spam-based attack that overwhelms email systems and does not bypass physical or logical security mechanisms.
- D. Password guessing attacks target specific authentication credentials and are limited by security policies, lockouts, and other defenses.
Question 23
Which of the following protocols is an alternative to certificate revocation lists (CRL) and allows the authenticity of a certificate to be immediately verified?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. OCSP
OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) is a real-time alternative to CRLs that allows immediate verification of certificate validity by querying an OCSP responder. Unlike CRLs which must be downloaded and parsed, OCSP provides instant confirmation of whether a certificate has been revoked, making it more efficient for validating certificate authenticity.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. RSTP is Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol, a network bridging protocol unrelated to certificate revocation.
- B. SKIP is a key exchange protocol, not a certificate revocation mechanism.
- D. HTTP is a general-purpose transport protocol that does not provide certificate status verification.
Question 24
In which of the following access control models can a user not grant permissions to other users to see a copy of an object marked as secret that he has received, unless they have the appropriate permissions?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Mandatory Access Control (MAC) uses security labels and classifications (such as 'secret') assigned to objects and clearance levels assigned to users. Access decisions are enforced by the system based on these labels, not by object owners. Users cannot grant permissions to objects marked as secret unless the system's security policy permits it based on clearance levels, regardless of ownership. This prevents unauthorized information flow.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Discretionary Access Control allows owners to grant permissions as they see fit, giving them control over access decisions.
- B. Role Based Access Control determines access based on assigned roles, but roles can be flexible and don't inherently restrict secret material sharing.
- D. Access Control Lists define who can access resources but still rely on owner discretion in DAC systems and don't enforce classification restrictions.
Question 25
An organization is seeking to implement a hot site and wants to maintain a live database server at the backup site.
Which of the following solutions will be the best for the organization?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Remote mirroring
Remote mirroring maintains a live, synchronized copy of the database at a remote site, making it ideal for a hot site implementation. It provides real-time replication so the backup site is always current and ready for immediate failover. Electronic vaulting is periodic backup, remote journaling logs transactions for replay, and transaction logging is a component of replication but not the complete solution.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Electronic vaulting is periodic backup transmission, not a live database solution.
- B. Remote journaling logs transactions but requires replay steps and is not as current as mirroring.
- D. Transaction logging is part of the process but does not itself maintain a live database copy.
Question 26
The network you administer allows owners of objects to manage the access to those objects via access control lists. This is an example of what type of access control?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. DAC
Discretionary Access Control (DAC) allows object owners to determine and manage access permissions to their objects through access control lists (ACLs). The discretion resides with the owner or administrator, giving them flexibility in granting or denying access. This is the defining characteristic of DAC systems.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. RBAC determines access based on roles assigned to users rather than owner discretion.
- B. MAC enforces access based on system-wide security labels and policies, not owner discretion.
- C. CIA refers to Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability principles, not an access control model.
Question 27
Which of the following electrical events shows a sudden drop of power source that can cause a wide variety of problems on a PC or a network?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Power sag
A power sag is a sudden, temporary drop in voltage from the power source, typically lasting milliseconds to seconds. Power sags can cause system instability, data loss, and hardware damage. A blackout is a complete loss of power, a power spike is a sudden increase in voltage, and a power surge is a sustained overvoltage. The question specifically asks about a sudden drop, which defines a power sag.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A blackout is a complete loss of power, not a drop in voltage.
- B. A power spike is a sudden increase in voltage, not a drop.
- D. A power surge is a sustained overvoltage condition, not a temporary voltage drop.
Question 28
Which of the following life cycle modeling activities establishes service relationships and message exchange paths?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Service-oriented logical design modeling
Service-oriented logical design modeling is the phase that establishes service relationships and message exchange paths. It defines how services interact with each other and the communication protocols between them.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Conceptual architecture modeling focuses on overall system structure rather than specific service relationships.
- C. Discovery and analysis modeling identifies available services, not message exchange paths.
- D. Business integration modeling focuses on business processes, not technical message exchange paths.
Question 29
Which of the following refers to a location away from the computer center where document copies and backup media are kept?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Off-site storage
Off-site storage refers to a location geographically separated from the primary computer center where copies of documents and backup media are stored. This provides protection against local disasters such as fires, floods, or theft that could destroy both primary and on-site backup systems.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Storage Area Network is a high-speed network storage infrastructure, typically located on-site or in data centers.
- C. On-site storage is located at the same facility as the computer center, not away from it.
- D. Network Attached Storage is a storage device connected to a network for data access and sharing, typically located on-site.
Question 30
The ATM of a bank is robbed by breaking the ATM machine.
Which of the following physical security devices can now be used for verification and historical analysis of the ATM robbery?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. CCTV Cameras
CCTV cameras provide visual recording that can be used for both verification of who committed the robbery and historical analysis of the incident. They capture video evidence that can be reviewed to identify perpetrators and understand how the robbery occurred.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Key cards control access but do not provide visual evidence or documentation of the actual robbery event.
- B. Biometric devices verify identity but cannot capture video evidence of the robbery or identify attackers.
- C. Intrusion detection systems alert to breaches but do not provide visual evidence or historical analysis of physical attacks on the ATM itself.
Question 31
Computer networks and the Internet are the prime mode of Information transfer today.
Which of the following is a technique used for modifying messages, providing Information and Cyber security, and reducing the risk of hacking attacks during communications and message passing over the Internet?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Cryptography
Cryptography is the technique of modifying messages through encryption and decryption to provide information and cybersecurity, and to reduce the risk of hacking attacks during communications over the Internet. It is the foundational security method for protecting data in transit. Risk analysis is a process, firewall security is network-level protection, and the OODA loop is a decision-making framework, none of which directly address message modification for security.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Risk analysis is a methodology for identifying and assessing risks, not a message modification technique.
- B. Firewall security operates at the network perimeter, not on individual messages.
- D. The OODA loop (Observe, Orient, Decide, Act) is a decision-making framework, not a cryptographic technique.
Question 32
Which of the following tenets does the CIA triad provide for which security practices are measured? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.
Choose all that apply.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, C, D. Integrity; Availability; Confidentiality
The CIA triad is the foundational security model consisting of Confidentiality (ensuring information is not disclosed to unauthorized parties), Integrity (ensuring information is accurate and unmodified), and Availability (ensuring information and systems are accessible when needed). These three tenets form the basis for measuring security practices. Accountability is important in security but is not part of the core CIA triad.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Accountability is a security principle but not one of the three core tenets of the CIA triad.
Question 33
Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol that allows individuals communicating over a non-secure network to prove their identity to one another in a secure manner.
Which of the following statements are true about the Kerberos authentication scheme? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, D. Kerberos requires continuous availability of a central server; Kerberos requires the clocks of the involved hosts to be synchronized.
Kerberos requires continuous availability of a central KDC server (A), if the KDC is unavailable, authentication fails. Kerberos also requires synchronized clocks across all involved hosts (D) because timestamps are used to prevent replay attacks and validate ticket validity. Option B is incorrect because brute force attacks on TGS responses are mitigated by the use of session keys, not vulnerable to password revelation. Option C is incorrect because Kerberos is based on symmetric key cryptography, not asymmetric cryptography.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. The TGS response uses a session key encrypted with the client's key; brute force attacks do not typically reveal passwords due to proper cryptographic implementation.
- C. Kerberos is built on symmetric key cryptography and does not require asymmetric keys; it relies on a trusted third party but uses symmetric encryption.
Question 34
Which of the following are the countermeasures against a man-in-the-middle attack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, C, D. Using public key infrastructure authentication; Using Secret keys for authentication; Using Off-channel verification.
Public key infrastructure (A) authenticates parties through certificates, preventing MITM attacks. Secret keys (C) for authentication establish trusted communication when properly implemented. Off-channel verification (D) confirms identity through an independent channel, making it impossible for an attacker to intercept all communications. These three methods provide complete solutions against MITM attacks.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Basic authentication (username and password transmitted in plaintext or Base64) provides no protection against man-in-the-middle attacks, as an attacker can intercept and use the credentials.
Question 35
Which of the following statements best describes a certification authority?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. A certification authority is an entity that issues digital certificates for use by other parties.
A certification authority (CA) is a trusted third-party organization that issues digital certificates to verify the identity of entities and bind public keys to identities. These certificates are used in public key infrastructure (PKI) to enable secure communications. Option A describes digital signatures, Option B describes asymmetric encryption, and Option D describes symmetric encryption, all related concepts but not definitions of a CA itself.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This describes digital signatures, which use cryptography to authenticate documents but are not what a CA is.
- B. This describes public key cryptography/asymmetric encryption, which CAs use but is not the definition of a CA.
- D. This describes symmetric encryption, which is unrelated to what a certification authority does.
Question 36
You work as a Network Administrator of a TCP/IP network. You are having DNS resolution problem.
Which of the following utilities will you use to diagnose the problem?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. NSLOOKUP
NSLOOKUP is the primary utility designed specifically for DNS resolution diagnosis. It queries DNS servers and shows whether they are responding correctly and resolving domain names properly. TRACERT traces network paths, PING tests connectivity, and IPCONFIG displays network configuration, none of these directly diagnose DNS resolution problems.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. TRACERT traces the route to a destination but does not diagnose DNS resolution issues.
- B. PING tests connectivity to an IP address but does not resolve domain names or diagnose DNS problems.
- C. IPCONFIG displays local network configuration but does not query DNS servers or test resolution.
Question 37
Which of the following should the administrator ensure during the test of a disaster recovery plan? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, C. Ensure that the plan works properly; Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility.
During a disaster recovery plan test, administrators must verify that the plan functions properly (Option A) and ensure all team members understand their assigned responsibilities (Option C). Testing should validate procedures, communication, and role clarity without necessarily shutting down actual operational systems. Shutting down all servers (B) or all client computers (D) would disrupt normal business operations and is not a requirement of testing, testing may use a separate test environment or specific test scenarios.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Shutting down all servers would disrupt normal business operations and is not necessary for testing the DR plan.
- D. Shutting down all client computers would similarly disrupt operations and is not a standard DR test requirement.
Question 38
The IPSec protocol is configured in an organization's network in order to maintain a complete infrastructure for secured network communications.
IPSec uses four components for this.
Which of the following components reduces the size of data transmitted over congested network connections and increases the speed of such networks without losing data?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. IPcomp
IPComp (IP Payload Compression) compresses data before encryption and transmission, reducing the size of data sent over the network and improving speed on congested connections without losing information. AH provides authentication, ESP provides encryption and authentication, and IKE handles key exchange, none of these focus on compression.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. AH (Authentication Header) provides integrity and authentication, not compression.
- B. ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) provides encryption and authentication, not compression.
- D. IKE (Internet Key Exchange) negotiates security parameters and exchanges keys, not compresses data.
Question 39
A helpdesk technician received a phone call from an administrator at a remote branch office. The administrator claimed to have forgotten the password for the root account on UNIX servers and asked for it. Although the technician didn't know any administrator at the branch office, the guy sounded really friendly and since he knew the root password himself, he supplied the caller with the password.
What type of attack has just occurred?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Social Engineering attack
This is a classic social engineering attack where the attacker manipulated the technician through persuasion and deception (sounding friendly, claiming to be an administrator) to divulge sensitive information. The attacker exploited human trust rather than technical vulnerabilities. Brute force is systematic password guessing, war dialing is phone scanning, and replay attacks involve reusing captured data.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Brute force involves systematically trying many passwords, not social manipulation.
- C. War dialing scans telephone numbers to find modems, unrelated to this scenario.
- D. Replay attacks involve capturing and resending authentication data, not obtaining new credentials through deception.
Question 40
Which of the following statements about incremental backup are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose two.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, D. It is the fastest method of backing up data; It backs up only the files changed since the most recent backup and clears the archive bit.
Incremental backup is the fastest method of backing up data because it only backs up files that have changed since the most recent backup. It also clears the archive bit after backing up these changed files. These two characteristics make incremental backup efficient for regular backup operations, though restore times may be longer since multiple incremental backups must be applied.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Incremental backup is actually the fastest method, not the slowest method of backup.
- C. Incremental backup only backs up changed files, not the entire database and transaction log like full backups do.
Question 41
Maria works as a Network Security Officer for Gentech Inc. She wants to encrypt her network traffic. The specific requirement for the encryption algorithm is that it must be a symmetric key block cipher.
Which of the following techniques will she use to fulfill this requirement?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. AES
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric key block cipher that is modern, secure, and widely adopted for encrypting network traffic. It operates on fixed-size blocks and uses the same key for both encryption and decryption, meeting all the specified requirements.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. IDEA is a symmetric block cipher but is less commonly used and not the preferred choice for modern network encryption.
- B. PGP is an asymmetric encryption system (public-key cryptography), not a symmetric block cipher.
- C. DES is a symmetric block cipher but is considered cryptographically weak and obsolete for modern security requirements.
Question 42
Which of the following are the centralized administration technologies? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, B. RADIUS; TACACS+
RADIUS and TACACS+ are both centralized administration technologies used for authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) across network devices. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) and TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) allow centralized management of user credentials and access policies across multiple devices. Media Access Control is a data link layer function, and Peer-to-Peer is a network architecture that is inherently decentralized.
Why the other options are wrong
- C. MAC (Media Access Control) addresses are used for local network identification, not centralized user administration.
- D. Peer-to-Peer is a decentralized architecture rather than a centralized administration technology.
Question 43
You work as an Incident handler in Mariotrixt.Inc. You have followed the Incident handling process to handle the events and incidents. You identify Denial of Service attack (DOS) from a network linked to your internal enterprise network.
Which of the following phases of the Incident handling process should you follow next to handle this incident?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Containment
After identification of an incident (in this case, a DOS attack has been identified), the next phase in the incident handling process is Containment. This phase involves stopping the attack, limiting its scope, and preventing further damage. Preparation comes before identification, recovery comes after containment, and identification has already occurred.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Preparation occurs before incidents are detected and identified.
- C. Recovery is a later phase that occurs after containment and eradication.
- D. Identification has already been completed; the DOS attack has been identified.
Question 44
A government agency wants one intermediary to combine services from a fixed set of three cloud providers into a single integrated service and to ensure secure data movement between the agency and those providers. In the NIST Cloud Computing Reference Architecture, which role and category does this describe?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. A cloud broker performing service aggregation
NIST SP 500-292 defines five actors: cloud consumer, cloud provider, cloud broker, cloud auditor, and cloud carrier. A cloud broker manages the use, performance, and delivery of cloud services and negotiates relationships between providers and consumers. In service aggregation, the broker combines and integrates multiple services into one or more new services and ensures secure data movement between the consumer and multiple providers. Because the agency's providers are fixed, this is aggregation rather than arbitrage, in which the services being aggregated are not fixed.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A cloud carrier transfers data between consumers and providers, much like a power distributor, and does not combine services into a new integrated offering.
- B. A cloud auditor performs an independent examination of cloud service controls to express an opinion, and it does not deliver or integrate services.
- C. Service arbitrage gives the broker flexibility to choose among services that are not fixed, which does not fit a fixed set of three providers.
Question 45
Which of the following types of attacks is often performed by looking surreptitiously at the keyboard or monitor of an employee's computer?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Shoulder surfing attack
Shoulder surfing is the practice of looking over someone's shoulder to view sensitive information on their screen or keyboard without their knowledge. This matches the description of surreptitiously observing keyboard and monitor activity. Buffer-overflow and DoS are technical attacks, and man-in-the-middle intercepts network traffic rather than observing physical displays.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Buffer-overflow attacks exploit memory vulnerabilities in code, not visual observation.
- B. Man-in-the-middle attacks intercept network communications, not observe physical monitors.
- D. Denial-of-Service attacks overwhelm systems with requests, unrelated to visual observation.
Question 46
Which of the following keys is derived from a preshared key and Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Pairwise Master Key
The Pairwise Master Key (PMK) is derived from a preshared key and EAP during the authentication process in Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA). It serves as the basis for generating session keys for secure data transmission.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Pairwise Transient Key is derived from the PMK, not directly from preshared key and EAP.
- B. Group Temporal Key is used for multicast/broadcast, not derived from preshared key and EAP.
- C. Private Key is part of asymmetric cryptography, not derived from preshared key and EAP.
Question 47
An agency's prime contractor will use two subcontractors to build and host parts of a new system. The security architect must ensure that the agency's access control and incident reporting requirements reach every organization that touches the system. Following NIST SP 800-161r1, what should the contract require?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The prime contractor implements the requirements and flows them down to relevant sub-tier contractors
NIST SP 800-161r1 directs enterprises to place cybersecurity supply chain requirements in their agreements and to require prime contractors to implement each control and flow the requirement down to relevant sub-tier contractors. Flow-down carries the agency's obligations through the whole supply chain even though the agency contracts only with the prime. The same guidance lists periodic revalidation of supplier adherence and agreed processes for reporting vulnerabilities and incidents as elements that contracts should include.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Binding only the prime leaves the subcontractors outside the requirements, which is the gap that flow-down clauses exist to close.
- C. The guidance calls for periodic revalidation of supplier adherence to security requirements, not a single check at award.
- D. Contracts should include processes for communicating and reporting vulnerabilities and incidents, and excluding subcontractors that build and host the system would hide disruptions.
Question 48
An organization wants to allow a certificate authority to gain access to the encrypted data and create digital signatures on behalf of the user. The data is encrypted using the public key from a user's certificate.
Which of the following processes fulfills the above requirements?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Key escrow
Key escrow is the process where a trusted third party (such as a certificate authority) holds a copy of users' private keys or decryption keys. This allows the CA to decrypt data encrypted with the user's public key and create digital signatures on behalf of the user when necessary. Key storage is general safekeeping, key revocation removes compromised keys, and key recovery restores lost keys, none of which match the specific requirement of authorized third-party access.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Key storage is the general safeguarding of keys, not the specific process of granting third-party access.
- C. Key revocation is the process of invalidating compromised or expired keys.
- D. Key recovery is the restoration of lost or inaccessible keys, not granting CA access to decrypt data.
Question 49
Which of the following attacks can be overcome by applying cryptography?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Sniffing
Sniffing attacks, where an attacker captures unencrypted network traffic to eavesdrop on communications, can be overcome by applying cryptography. Encryption transforms data into an unreadable format, preventing attackers from understanding intercepted traffic. Web ripping, DoS attacks, and buffer overflows are not directly addressed by cryptography alone, as they involve different attack vectors.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Web ripping is prevented through access controls and robots.txt restrictions, not cryptography.
- B. DoS attacks cannot be overcome by cryptography; they require rate limiting and traffic filtering.
- D. Buffer overflow attacks are prevented through secure coding practices and memory protections, not cryptography.
Question 50
Which of the following processes identifies the threats that can impact the business continuity of operations?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Risk analysis
Risk analysis is the process that identifies threats capable of impacting business continuity. It examines potential threats and their likelihood of occurrence, which is fundamental to business continuity planning.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Function analysis examines what functions a system should perform, not threats to continuity.
- C. Business impact analysis measures the consequences of disruptions but does not identify threats themselves.
- D. Requirement analysis defines what needs to be built, not potential threats to operations.
Question 51
You want to connect a twisted pair cable segment to a fiber-optic cable segment.
Which of the following networking devices will you use to accomplish the task?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Repeater
A repeater operates at the physical layer and can connect different media types by regenerating signals, allowing twisted pair cables to connect with fiber-optic cables. Hubs and switches operate at higher layers and do not perform physical media conversion. Routers operate at Layer 3 and are protocol-aware devices, not media converters. The repeater simply amplifies and retransmits signals between different physical media.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A hub connects multiple twisted pair segments but cannot bridge to fiber-optic cable.
- B. A switch operates at Layer 2 and is designed for the same media type on all ports.
- D. A router operates at Layer 3 and handles IP routing, not physical media type conversion.
Question 52
You work as a technician for Trade Well Inc. The company is in the business of share trading. To enhance security, the company wants users to provide a third key (apart from ID and password) to access the company's Web site.
Which of the following technologies will you implement to accomplish the task?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Key fobs
Key fobs generate time-based or event-based one-time passwords (OTP) that serve as a third authentication factor beyond username and password. They provide a physical token that users must possess, making them ideal for implementing three-factor authentication (something you know + something you have + OTP).
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Smart cards require specialized card readers and infrastructure, making them less practical for web access than key fobs.
- C. VPN is a network security protocol that encrypts connections but does not add a third authentication factor.
- D. Biometrics can serve as multi-factor authentication but are not typically referred to as a 'third key' and involve different implementation challenges.
Question 53
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. John notices that the We-are-secure network is vulnerable to a man-in-the-middle attack since the key exchange process of the cryptographic algorithm it is using does not thenticate participants.
Which of the following cryptographic algorithms is being used by the We-are-secure server?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Diffie-Hellman
Diffie-Hellman is a key exchange algorithm that is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks because the basic protocol does not authenticate the participants in the key exchange. An attacker can intercept the exchange and substitute their own values, allowing them to decrypt communications. While Blowfish, Twofish, and RSA may have their own vulnerabilities, Diffie-Hellman is specifically known for this authentication gap in key exchange.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Blowfish is a symmetric encryption algorithm and is not primarily used for key exchange.
- B. Twofish is a symmetric block cipher and does not involve the same key exchange vulnerability.
- C. RSA includes authentication in its key exchange mechanism through digital signatures and certificates.
Question 54
An enterprise architect needs risk assessment results that determine the protection and resiliency requirements for a group of mission/business processes and allocate those requirements to enterprise architecture segments, including the choice of common controls. According to NIST SP 800-30r1, at which tier should this risk assessment be conducted?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Tier 2, the mission/business process level
SP 800-30r1 applies risk assessments across three tiers of the risk management hierarchy. Tier 2 assessments support the determination of mission/business process protection and resiliency requirements and their allocation to the enterprise architecture through an embedded information security architecture. They also help select common controls that Tier 3 systems inherit, and their results are shared with Tier 3 to guide control allocation. That makes Tier 2 the point where an architect turns risk assessment artifacts into design decisions spanning several systems.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Tier 1 assessments shape organization-wide programs, policies and minimum organization-wide controls rather than allocating requirements to specific mission/business segments.
- C. Tier 3 assessments support the RMF for individual information systems, such as categorization and control selection for one system, not requirements that span mission/business segments.
- D. SP 800-30r1 states that risk assessments can be conducted at all three tiers, not only for individual information systems.
Question 55
You work as a Network Administrator for Blue Bell Inc. The company has a TCP-based network. The company has two offices in different cities.
The company wants to connect the two offices by using a public network. You decide to configure a virtual private network (VPN) between the offices.
Which of the following protocols is used by VPN for tunneling?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. L2TP
L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) is a standard VPN protocol used for creating secure tunnels between networks. It operates at Layer 2 and is commonly used to establish VPN connections between offices across public networks. While IPSec can also be used for VPN, L2TP is the most direct answer as a dedicated tunneling protocol.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. HTTPS is an application-layer security protocol, not a VPN tunneling protocol.
- C. SSL is a security protocol for web traffic and other applications, not a primary VPN tunneling protocol.
- D. While IPSec is used in VPNs, L2TP is the more specific tunneling protocol designed for this purpose.
Question 56
John works as a Network Administrator for NetPerfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. John has been assigned a project to build a network for the sales department of the company. It is important for the LAN to continue working even if there is a break in the cabling.
Which of the following topologies should John use to accomplish the task?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Mesh
Mesh topology provides redundancy by creating multiple paths between network nodes. If there is a break in any single cable, data can still be transmitted through alternative routes, ensuring the network continues to operate. This is the defining characteristic of mesh topology and makes it ideal for applications requiring high availability.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Star topology depends on a central switch or hub; a cable break isolates individual nodes but the network continues, however it's not optimal for this requirement.
- C. Bus topology has a single backbone cable; a break in the cabling disrupts the entire network.
- D. Ring topology has a single loop; a cable break breaks the ring and disrupts network communication.
Question 57
You work as a Project Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You are creating a document which emphasizes the formal study of what your organization is doing currently and where it will be in the future.
Which of the following analysis will help you in accomplishing the task?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Gap analysis
Gap analysis is the formal study of the difference between an organization's current state and its desired future state. It identifies what the organization is currently doing and where it wants to be, making it the perfect tool for the document described in the question.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Cost-benefit analysis evaluates financial trade-offs, not current versus future organizational positioning.
- C. Requirement analysis focuses on what is needed for a specific project or system, not organizational direction.
- D. Vulnerability analysis identifies security weaknesses, not organizational current and future states.
Question 58
Mark has been hired by a company to work as a Network Assistant. He is assigned the task to configure a dial-up connection. He is configuring a laptop.
Which of the following protocols should he disable to ensure that the password is encrypted during remote access?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. PAP
PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) transmits passwords in clear text without encryption, making it the protocol that should be disabled to ensure password encryption. MSCHAP and MSCHAP v2 both provide encrypted authentication, while SPAP is a Shiva proprietary protocol. To ensure encrypted passwords, PAP must be disabled.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. SPAP is a proprietary protocol that does encrypt credentials, so it doesn't need to be disabled for encryption.
- B. MSCHAP provides encrypted authentication and is considered secure for remote access.
- D. MSCHAP v2 is an improved version of MSCHAP that provides enhanced security and encrypted authentication.
Question 59
Which of the following firewalls inspects the actual contents of packets?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Application-level firewall
Application-level firewalls (also called proxy firewalls or application gateway firewalls) inspect the actual contents of packets by examining data at the application layer. They can understand and analyze the specific protocols and content of network traffic, making them capable of detailed packet content inspection.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Packet filtering firewalls only examine headers like IP addresses and ports, not packet contents.
- B. Stateful inspection firewalls track connection states but don't deeply inspect packet contents at the application level.
- D. Circuit-level firewalls operate at the transport layer and monitor TCP/UDP connections without examining packet contents.
That was 59 of 237.
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