120 free CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 practice questions from the CertStash pack of 482, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. The rule is the same for every exam: ten free on the product page, 120 free here, all 482 in the pack, and each step includes the one before it.
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Question 1
An organization is working to secure its development process to ensure developers cannot deploy artifacts directly into the production environment.
Which of the following security practice recommendations would be the best to accomplish this objective?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Set up policies and systems with separation of duties.
Separation of duties is a fundamental access control principle that prevents any single individual from having complete control over a critical transaction or process. By implementing policies and systems with separation of duties, the organization ensures that developers cannot unilaterally deploy artifacts to production, this requires approval and execution by different roles. This directly addresses the stated objective of preventing direct production deployments by developers.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Least privilege access is important but doesn't specifically prevent developers from deploying to production if they have any production access.
- B. Security awareness training improves security culture but doesn't enforce technical controls preventing direct deployments.
- D. Job rotation reduces insider threat risk over time but doesn't prevent current deployment capabilities.
- E. Mandatory vacations may help detect fraudulent activities but don't prevent unauthorized deployments.
- F. Quarterly access reviews are detective controls that occur too infrequently to prevent unauthorized deployments.
Question 2
A security architect discovers the following while reviewing code for a company's website: selection = "SELECT Item FROM Catalog WHERE ItemID = " & Request("ItemID")
Which of the following should the security architect recommend?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Query parameterization
The code shown is vulnerable to SQL injection because user input from Request('ItemID') is directly concatenated into the SQL query string without sanitization. Query parameterization (also called prepared statements) separates SQL code from data, preventing attackers from injecting malicious SQL commands. This is the industry-standard defense against SQL injection attacks.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Client-side processing cannot prevent SQL injection, which occurs at the database level.
- C. Data normalization organizes data structure but doesn't prevent SQL injection attacks.
- D. Escape character blocking is an outdated approach less effective than parameterization and can be bypassed.
- E. URL encoding protects data in transit but doesn't prevent SQL injection at the database layer.
Question 3
A CRM company leverages a CSP PaaS service to host and publish Its SaaS product. Recently, a large customer requested that all infrastructure components must meet strict regulatory requirements, including configuration management, patch management, and life-cycle management.
Which of the following organizations is responsible for ensuring those regulatory requirements are met?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. The CRM company
In a PaaS cloud model, the CRM company (the customer) retains responsibility for application-level security controls and compliance requirements. While the CSP provides infrastructure, the CRM company must ensure that its deployment meets regulatory requirements including configuration management, patch management, and lifecycle management of the application and its data. The customer cannot delegate compliance responsibility to the cloud provider.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. The customer's customer does not have direct responsibility for the infrastructure requirements.
- C. The CSP provides infrastructure but the responsibility for meeting regulatory requirements specific to the customer's business rests with the CRM company.
- D. The regulatory body sets requirements but doesn't implement the controls needed to meet them.
Question 4
Company A is merging with Company B. Company A is a small, local company. Company B has a large, global presence. The two companies have a lot of duplication in their IT systems, processes, and procedures. On the new Chief Information Officer's (CIO's) first day, a fire breaks out at Company B's main data center.
Which of the following actions should the CIO take first?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Review the incident response plans, and engage the disaster recovery plan while relying on the IT leaders from both companies.
When faced with an active crisis (fire at data center), the CIO should immediately engage both incident response and disaster recovery procedures. The correct approach is to review available incident response plans and activate the disaster recovery plan while leveraging existing IT leadership expertise from both companies. This balances the need for immediate action with practical reliance on personnel who understand both organizations' systems.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Determining whether plans have been tested is not the first priority during an active incident; immediate response is critical.
- C. Verifying availability of recovery sites and briefing leadership, while important, delays actual response actions during an emergency.
- D. Performing a BIA (Business Impact Analysis) is post-incident recovery work, not a first action during active crisis response.
Question 5
A security analyst is investigating a possible insider threat incident that involves the use of an unauthorized USB from a shared account to exfiltrate data. The event did not create an alert. The analyst has confirmed the USB hardware ID is not on the device allow list, but has not yet confirmed the owner of the USB device.
Which of the following actions should the analyst take next?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Classify the incident as a false negative.
A false negative occurs when a detection system fails to alert on a malicious event that actually occurred. In this case, an actual incident (unauthorized USB used to exfiltrate data from a shared account) happened but the system did not create an alert. This is a failure of detection controls, the incident was real but undetected by monitoring systems, making it a false negative.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. False positive means alerting on benign activity; this was a confirmed malicious event.
- C. True positive means correctly detecting actual malicious activity with an alert; no alert was generated.
- D. True negative means correctly not alerting on benign activity; this event was confirmed malicious.
Question 6
Which of the following security features do email signatures provide?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Non-repudiation
Email signatures provide non-repudiation, which is the assurance that the sender cannot deny having sent the message. A digital signature, created with the sender's private key and verifiable with their public key, cryptographically proves that a specific individual sent the message and that it hasn't been altered. This prevents the signer from later repudiating (denying) having sent the email.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Email signatures do not encrypt message body content; that requires separate encryption mechanisms.
- C. Code signing is a different application of digital signatures used for software authenticity, not email signatures.
- D. While sender authentication may be a benefit, non-repudiation is the primary security property provided.
- E. Chain of custody refers to evidence handling procedures unrelated to email signatures.
Question 7
A software development company wants to ensure that users can confirm the software is legitimate when installing it.
Which of the following is the best way for the company to achieve this security objective?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Code signing
Code signing allows users to verify that software is legitimate and hasn't been tampered with. The software developer signs the code with their private key, and users can verify the signature using the developer's public key. This ensures the software comes from the claimed source and provides proof of authenticity at installation time, directly meeting the stated objective.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Non-repudiation prevents the developer from denying they signed code but doesn't help users verify legitimacy.
- C. Key escrow involves storing cryptographic keys with a third party; it doesn't verify software authenticity.
- D. Private keys are used to create signatures but exposing private keys would compromise security; users need public keys.
Question 8
While performing mandatory monthly patch updates on a production application server, the security analyst reports an instance of buffer overflow for a new application that was migrated to the cloud and is also publicly exposed. Security policy requires that only internal users have access to the application.
Which of the following should the analyst implement to mitigate the issues reported? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, B. Configure firewall rules to block all external traffic; Enable input validation for all fields.
Two complementary controls should be implemented: A) Configure firewall rules to block all external traffic, addressing the policy violation that only internal users should access the application, preventing external exploitation of the buffer overflow vulnerability. B) Enable input validation for all fields, which is a defensive programming practice that prevents malformed input from causing buffer overflows. Together these controls eliminate both the exposure and the vulnerability vector.
Why the other options are wrong
- C. Automatic updates are important for patching but don't specifically address the current buffer overflow or access control issues.
- D. Enabling external traffic would worsen the problem by allowing attackers to reach the vulnerable application.
- E. DLP policies detect data exfiltration but don't prevent buffer overflow exploitation or unauthorized access.
- F. Nightly vulnerability scans detect issues but don't provide real-time mitigation of active threats.
Question 9
PKI can be used to support security requirements in the change management process.
Which of the following capabilities does PKI provide for messages?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Non-repudiation
Non-repudiation is a core capability of PKI that prevents a sender from denying they created or sent a message. Digital signatures provide this by cryptographically binding the sender's identity to the message. In change management, non-repudiation ensures accountability when approvals and authorizations are digitally signed. While PKI can support confidentiality through encryption and certificates, the question asks what PKI provides specifically for messages in the change management context, making non-repudiation the most direct answer.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Confidentiality requires symmetric encryption, which is separate from PKI's core function of authentication and non-repudiation.
- C. Delivery receipts are a messaging feature unrelated to PKI capabilities.
- D. Attestation is not a standard PKI security service; PKI provides authentication, confidentiality, and non-repudiation.
Question 10
Several unlabeled documents in a cloud document repository contain cardholder information.
Which of the following configuration changes should be made to the DLP system to correctly label these documents in the future?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Regular expressions
Regular expressions are the correct configuration for a DLP system to identify and label documents containing specific data patterns like cardholder information (credit card numbers follow predictable formats). Regular expressions allow DLP systems to scan document content and match patterns such as 16-digit sequences typical of payment cards. This enables automatic labeling of previously unlabeled documents in the cloud repository.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Digital rights management controls access and usage permissions but does not identify or label data patterns.
- B. Network traffic decryption relates to monitoring communications, not identifying and labeling documents in a repository.
- D. Watermarking adds visible or invisible marks to documents but does not identify or automatically label sensitive content patterns.
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Question 11
A malicious actor exploited firmware vulnerabilities and used rootkits in an attack on an organization. After the organization recovered from the incident, an engineer needs to recommend a solution that reduces the likelihood of the same type of attack in the future.
Which of the following is the most relevant solution?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Implementing measured boot
Measured boot detects and prevents firmware and rootkit attacks by verifying the integrity of the boot process and system firmware before they execute. It extends trust from the hardware root of trust through the entire boot chain, detecting unauthorized firmware modifications or rootkits that attempt to load during startup, directly addressing the exploitation vector used in the incident.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Software integrity checks occur after boot and cannot prevent firmware-level attacks or rootkits loaded during boot.
- B. Self-encrypting drives protect data at rest but do not prevent firmware vulnerabilities or rootkit installation.
- D. Host-based encryption protects data but does not prevent or detect firmware exploits or rootkit loading.
Question 12
After remote desktop capabilities were deployed in the environment various vulnerabilities were noticed:
• Exfiltration of intellectual property
• Unencrypted files
• Weak user passwords
Which of the following is the best way to mitigate these vulnerabilities? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, D. Implementing data loss prevention; Deploying directory-based group policies
Implementing data loss prevention (A) directly mitigates the exfiltration of intellectual property vulnerability, while restricting access to critical file services only (C) limits who can access sensitive data. Deploying directory-based group policies (D) enforces password complexity requirements, addressing weak passwords. These two options comprehensively address the three vulnerabilities identified. File integrity monitoring (B) detects changes but doesn't prevent exfiltration, version control (F) and CMDB (G) don't address the specific vulnerabilities, MFA (E) doesn't solve unencrypted files or IP exfiltration.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. File integrity monitoring detects unauthorized changes but doesn't prevent intellectual property exfiltration or enforce password policy.
- C. Access restrictions help but don't directly address IP exfiltration through remote desktop or weak password enforcement.
- E. MFA improves authentication but doesn't prevent data exfiltration or address unencrypted file storage vulnerabilities.
- F. Version control systems don't address exfiltration, encryption, or password strength requirements.
- G. A CMDB platform manages configuration data but doesn't prevent exfiltration, enforce encryption, or strengthen passwords.
Question 13
A systems administrator wants to use existing resources to automate reporting from disparate security appliances that do not currently communicate.
Which of the following is the best way to meet this objective?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Configuring an API integration to aggregate the different data sets
API integration is the best approach to automate reporting from disparate security appliances because it leverages existing resources and enables real-time data aggregation without requiring major infrastructure changes. APIs allow different systems to communicate and share data efficiently, which directly addresses the objective of automating reporting from appliances that currently do not communicate.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Combining backend storage into a relational database requires significant restructuring and doesn't address the communication gap between appliances.
- C. Purchasing commercial software contradicts the directive to use existing resources.
- D. Migrating logs to on-premises storage does not automate reporting or enable appliance communication.
Question 14
An organization is required to:
• Respond to internal and external inquiries in a timely manner.
• Provide transparency.
• Comply with regulatory requirements.
The organization has not experienced any reportable breaches but wants to be prepared if a breach occurs in the future.
Which of the following is the best way for the organization to prepare?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Developing communication templates that have been vetted by internal and external counsel
Developing communication templates vetted by internal and external counsel is the best proactive preparation because it ensures the organization can respond to inquiries in a timely, transparent, and legally compliant manner when a breach occurs. Pre-vetted templates reduce response time, ensure consistent messaging, and minimize legal liability.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Outsourcing regulatory filings removes control and does not directly prepare the organization to respond to inquiries in a timely manner.
- B. Automating DSAR response mechanisms is valuable but does not address the broader need for general breach communication preparation.
- D. Lessons-learned activities are useful post-incident but do not proactively prepare the organization before a breach occurs.
Question 15
A central bank implements strict risk mitigations for the hardware supply chain, including an allow list for specific countries of origin.
Which of the following best describes the cyberthreat to the bank?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Physical implants and tampering
A central bank implementing country-of-origin allow lists for hardware supply chain mitigations is addressing the risk of physical tampering and implants. Nation-state and sophisticated threat actors can insert hardware backdoors, malicious firmware, or physical implants into components during manufacturing or transit. Restricting components to trusted countries reduces exposure to these supply chain compromise risks, which is the primary cyberthreat model for hardware supply chain controls.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Wartime component availability is a business continuity concern, not a primary cybersecurity threat.
- B. DDoS vulnerability is unrelated to hardware origin; it applies equally regardless of component source.
- D. Manufacturing standards compliance is important but is not the primary threat model driving country-of-origin restrictions; security threats take precedence.
Question 16
A company wants to invest in research capabilities with the goal to operationalize the research output.
Which of the following is the best option for a security architect to recommend?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Threat intelligence platform
A Threat Intelligence Platform (TIP) is specifically designed to collect, analyze, and operationalize threat research output by integrating it into security operations, incident response workflows, and defensive measures. It transforms research findings into actionable intelligence that can be deployed across the security infrastructure.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Dark web monitoring is a specific reconnaissance technique, not a platform for operationalizing research output across the organization.
- C. Honeypots are detection and research tools but do not operationalize research findings into broader security operations.
- D. Continuous adversary emulation is a testing methodology; while valuable, it does not operationalize research output in the way a TIP does.
Question 17
A security engineer must integrate device attestation into user authentication and authorization workflows for mobile devices.
Which of the following best meets the requirements?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Configuring device profiling for patch level and jailbreak status
Device attestation verifies the integrity and security posture of a device before granting access. Configuring device profiling for patch level and jailbreak status directly assesses whether a device is in a trusted state by checking for security-critical indicators, enabling the organization to enforce device attestation as part of authentication and authorization workflows for mobile devices.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Enforcing security boundaries for devices outside the perimeter is a network segmentation approach, not device attestation integration.
- B. Multifactor authentication using biometrics authenticates the user, not the device integrity or attestation status.
- C. Single sign-on centralizes access control but does not perform device attestation or profiling of device security posture.
Question 18
Which of the following is the main reason quantum computing advancements are leading companies and countries to deploy new encryption algorithms?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Encryption systems based on large prime numbers will be vulnerable to exploitation.
Quantum computers with sufficient qubits can efficiently factor large prime numbers using Shor's algorithm, which breaks the security of RSA and similar encryption systems that depend on the computational difficulty of prime factorization. This is the primary driver for post-quantum cryptography adoption. The other options mischaracterize quantum computing threats or are unrelated to quantum advancement concerns.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Zero Trust architectures do not inherently require homomorphic encryption; they focus on continuous verification rather than specific encryption types.
- C. Perfect forward secrecy is actually a desirable property unrelated to firewall monitoring limitations.
- D. Quantum computers do not enable real-time capture of encrypted IP traffic; the threat is future decryption of currently captured encrypted data.
Question 19
A systems administrator at a web-hosting provider has been tasked with renewing the public certificates of all customer sites.
Which of the following would best support multiple domain names while minimizing the amount of certificates needed?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. SAN
Subject Alternative Name (SAN) certificates allow a single certificate to secure multiple domain names, making it the most cost-effective solution for administrators managing certificates across many customer sites. A SAN certificate can cover primary domains and subdomains without requiring separate certificates for each, directly addressing the need to support multiple domains while minimizing certificate count.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. OCSP is a protocol for checking certificate revocation status, not for managing multiple domain names in a single certificate.
- B. CRL (Certificate Revocation List) is a method for distributing revocation information, not for supporting multiple domains on one certificate.
- D. CA (Certificate Authority) is the issuing entity itself, not a certificate type or feature that supports multiple domains.
Question 20
A company hosts a platform-as-a-service solution with a web-based front end, through which customers interact with data sets. A security administrator needs to deploy controls to prevent application-focused attacks.
Which of the following most directly supports the administrator’s objective?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Creating WAF policies for relevant programming languages
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) with policies tailored to specific programming languages directly prevents application-focused attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and other code-level vulnerabilities. WAF policies examine application traffic and block malicious payloads before they reach the application logic, making this the most direct control for application attack prevention.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Improving SIEM dashboards enhances visibility and alerting but does not actively prevent attacks.
- B. Rotating API keys addresses credential security but doesn't prevent application logic attacks like injection or XSS.
- C. Load balancing and availability are infrastructure resilience measures, not application attack prevention controls.
Question 21
A systems administrator is working with the SOC to identify potential intrusions associated with ransomware. The SOC wants the systems administrator to perform network-level analysis to identify outbound traffic from any infected machines.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the systems administrator to take?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Review NetFlow logs for unexpected increases in egress traffic.
NetFlow logs provide network-level visibility into traffic patterns and volume. Reviewing them for unexpected increases in egress traffic is the most direct network-level analysis method to identify infected machines communicating with external command-and-control servers or exfiltrating data, which are hallmarks of ransomware behavior.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Monitoring for IoCs (Indicators of Compromise) associated with C&C communications is appropriate but less specific to network-level analysis and may require endpoint data.
- B. Tuning alerts for changes to administrative groups addresses privilege escalation concerns but does not directly identify ransomware outbound traffic.
- D. Binary hash comparisons are endpoint-level analysis, not network-level analysis, and are better suited for identifying malware files rather than network communications.
Question 22
A company notices that cloud environment costs increased after using a new serverless solution based on API requests. Many invalid requests from unknown IPs were found, often within a short time.
Which of the following solutions would most likely solve this issue, reduce cost, and improve security?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Setting authentication processes for the API requests as well as proper rate limits according to regular usage
The scenario requires addressing three concerns: high costs from invalid requests, security from unknown IPs, and cost optimization. Authentication for API requests filters out unauthorized callers early, while rate limiting prevents abuse from consuming excessive resources. This dual approach directly solves cost (by limiting request volume), security (by authenticating legitimate users), and performance issues simultaneously. It's more comprehensive than alternatives.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Digital certificates for only known customers is too restrictive and doesn't address rate limiting, which is necessary to control costs from attack traffic.
- B. Comparing against a blacklist of known-malicious IPs is reactive and doesn't prevent zero-day attacks or unknown threat actors; rate limits alone also don't authenticate legitimate users.
- D. Geo-blocking by known customer regions is overly restrictive, prevents business expansion, and doesn't address authentication or rate limiting requirements.
Question 23
Which of the following utilizes policies that route packets to ensure only specific types of traffic are being sent to the correct destination based on application usage?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. SDN
SDN (Software-Defined Networking) uses centralized policies to route packets based on application type and usage patterns, allowing fine-grained control over traffic forwarding. This capability defines SDN's core function: using software policies to intelligently direct specific traffic types to appropriate destinations. Pcap captures packets; vmstat monitors system resources; DNSSEC secures DNS; VPC isolates network resources but doesn't provide application-aware routing policies.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Pcap is a packet capture tool for analyzing network traffic, not for routing or policy enforcement.
- C. Vmstat monitors system statistics and performance but has no role in packet routing or application-based policies.
- D. DNSSEC secures DNS queries and responses but does not route packets based on application usage.
- E. VPC provides network isolation but lacks the application-aware policy routing capability described.
Question 24
A company migrated a critical workload from its data center to the cloud. The workload uses a very large data set that requires computational-intensive data processing. The business unit that uses the workload is projecting the following growth pattern:
• Storage requirements will double every six months.
• Computational requirements will fluctuate throughout the year
• Average computational requirements will double every year.
Which of the following should the company do to address the business unit's requirements?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Plan for a horizontally scaling computing and storage infrastructure
The business requirements show predictable, continuous growth in both storage (doubling every 6 months) and computation (doubling annually with seasonal fluctuation). Horizontal scaling, adding more nodes/instances rather than upgrading existing ones, is ideal for this pattern. It allows independent scaling of compute and storage resources, handles fluctuation efficiently, and accommodates doubling requirements through distributed architecture rather than hitting vertical limits.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. CDNs are for content delivery, not for computational-intensive data processing; load balancers alone don't address the underlying storage and compute scaling requirements.
- B. Vertical autoscaling has physical limits per server and becomes cost-prohibitive; it's unsuitable for the aggressive growth pattern of doubling every 6-12 months.
- C. A load balancer distributes traffic but doesn't address the underlying infrastructure scaling needed for storage growth and computational requirement increases.
Question 25
A software vendor provides routine functionality and security updates to its global customer base. The vendor would like to ensure distributed updates are authorized, originate from only the company, and have not been modified by others.
Which of the following solutions best supports these objectives?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Code signing
Code signing uses digital signatures to verify that updates are authorized, originate from the vendor's legitimate certificate, and have not been modified in transit or by unauthorized parties. This cryptographic approach ensures authenticity, origin verification, and integrity of distributed software updates. Envelope encryption protects data in transit but does not verify the source or authorization of code. File integrity monitoring detects changes but does not prevent unauthorized distribution or verify origin. Application control restricts what runs but does not ensure legitimate updates are properly authenticated.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Envelope encryption provides confidentiality but does not verify the source of updates or ensure they are authorized by the vendor.
- B. File integrity monitoring detects unauthorized modifications but does not authenticate the origin or authorize distribution of updates.
- C. Application control restricts execution but does not verify update authenticity, origin, or authorization.
Question 26
A company recently experienced an incident in which an advanced threat actor was able to shim malicious code against the hardware stack of a domain controller. The forensic team cryptographically validated that both the underlying firmware of the box and the operating system had not been compromised. However, the attacker was able to exfiltrate information from the server using a steganographic technique within LDAP.
Which of the following is the best way to reduce the risk of reoccurrence?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Enforcing allow lists for authorized network ports and protocols
Enforcing allow lists for authorized network ports and protocols (A) directly prevents the steganographic exfiltration through LDAP by restricting which network communications are permitted. Since the threat actor successfully exfiltrated data via LDAP despite firmware and OS integrity, the attack vector was the network protocol itself, making network-level controls the appropriate mitigation. Boot chain attestation (B) validates firmware/OS which were already confirmed clean, key rolling (C) doesn't prevent protocol abuse, and code signing (D) verifies updates but doesn't restrict runtime network traffic.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Measuring boot chain integrity doesn't prevent an attacker already on the system from exfiltrating data through allowed network protocols.
- C. Rolling cryptographic keys doesn't address the fundamental issue of unrestricted LDAP protocol usage for data exfiltration.
- D. Code signing verifies OS update authenticity but doesn't prevent a compromised system from using legitimate protocols like LDAP maliciously.
Question 27
After an organization met with its ISAC, the organization decided to test the resiliency of its security controls against a small number of advanced threat actors.
Which of the following will enable the security administrator to accomplish this task?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Adversary emulation
Adversary emulation involves simulating the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of real-world advanced threat actors to test organizational resilience. Frameworks like MITRE ATT&CK enable adversary emulation by providing detailed threat actor behaviors. This directly accomplishes the stated goal of testing security controls against small numbers of advanced threat actors by recreating their attack methods in a controlled manner.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Reliability factors measure system uptime and availability, not security control effectiveness against adversaries.
- C. Honeypots detect attacks but do not actively test the organization's security controls; they are passive detection tools.
- D. Internal reconnaissance gathers information about the environment but does not test security control resilience against advanced threats.
Question 28
A web application server that provides services to hybrid modern and legacy financial applications recently underwent a scheduled upgrade to update common libraries, including OpenSSL. Multiple users are now reporting failed connection attempts to the server. The technician performing initial triage identified the following:
• Client applications more than five years old appear to be the most affected
• Web server logs show initial connection attempts by affected hosts.
• For the failed connections, logs indicate "cipher unavailable. "
Which of the following is most likely to safely remediate this situation?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The client applications need to be modified to support AES in Galois/Counter Mode or equivalent
The OpenSSL upgrade removed support for older cipher suites used by legacy applications. Older client applications cannot negotiate connections because the server no longer supports the weak ciphers they use. Modern cipher suites like AES-GCM provide equivalent security and compatibility. Updating client applications to support these modern ciphers is the safest remediation that maintains security while restoring functionality.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Reverting to SSL 3.0 would introduce severe security vulnerabilities and is not a safe remediation.
- C. Electronic codebook mode is cryptographically weak and does not solve the compatibility issue.
- D. Modifying the server-side digital signature algorithm does not address the cipher unavailability issue affecting connection establishment.
Question 29
An organization is looking for gaps in its detection capabilities based on the APTs that may target the industry.
Which of the following should the security analyst use to perform threat modeling?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. ATT&CK
The MITRE ATT&CK framework catalogs adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by known APTs across industries. It is specifically designed for threat modeling, adversary behavior analysis, and identifying detection gaps by mapping which APT techniques an organization can and cannot detect. This directly supports the security analyst's task of identifying capability gaps against industry-specific APT threats.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. OWASP focuses on web application security vulnerabilities and secure development practices, not APT behavior modeling.
- C. CVSS (or similar acronyms) is a vulnerability scoring system for severity assessment, not a framework for APT threat modeling.
- D. STRIDE is a threat modeling methodology for identifying design-level threats in systems, not for mapping APT techniques and detection gaps.
Question 30
A systems administrator needs to identify new attacks that could be carried out against the environment. The administrator plans to proactively seek out and observe new attacks.
Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this goal?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Deploying a honeypot
A honeypot is a decoy system designed to attract and observe attacks in a controlled environment, allowing administrators to study attacker behavior and identify new attack techniques without affecting production systems. This directly supports proactively seeking out and observing new attacks. IPS is reactive/defensive, sandboxing isolates suspicious files for analysis but doesn't proactively seek attacks, and IoC scanning looks for known indicators rather than discovering new attacks.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. IPS is a defensive tool that blocks known attacks, not a proactive mechanism for discovering new attack methods.
- B. Sandboxing isolates and analyzes suspicious code but doesn't proactively seek out new attacks in the environment.
- C. Scanning for IoCs detects known compromise indicators rather than identifying new and unknown attacks.
Question 31
Which of the following describes how a risk assessment is performed when an organization has a critical vendor that provides multiple products?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. At the individual product level
When an organization has a critical vendor providing multiple products, risk assessment should be performed at the individual product level. Each product may have different vulnerabilities, configurations, update cycles, and security postures. Assessing at the product level ensures comprehensive identification of risks rather than treating the vendor relationship as a monolithic entity. This granular approach enables targeted remediation strategies for each product.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Random product selection is not a systematic or defensible approach to risk assessment.
- C. While third-party audit reports may inform assessment, they do not describe the methodology of how assessment is performed.
- D. Choosing a major product ignores the security risks of other products and is not a comprehensive assessment approach.
Question 32
A hospital provides tablets to its medical staff to enable them to more quickly access and edit patients' charts. The hospital wants to ensure that if a tablet is identified as lost or stolen and a remote command is issued, the risk of data loss can be mitigated within seconds. The tablets are configured as follows to meet hospital policy:
• Full disk encryption is enabled.
• "Always On" corporate VPN is enabled.
• eFuse-backed keystore is enabled/ready.
• Wi-Fi 6 is configured with SAE.
• Location services is disabled.
• Application allow list is unconfigured.
Assuming the hospital policy cannot be changed, which of the following is the best way to meet the hospital's objective?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Cryptographically erase FDE volumes
Cryptographically erasing FDE volumes is the fastest way to render data unrecoverable within seconds when a tablet is lost or stolen. Since the eFuse-backed keystore is enabled, the encryption keys can be cryptographically destroyed, making all encrypted data on the disk immediately inaccessible without requiring time-consuming physical destruction or waiting for network-based actions to complete.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Revoking VPN and Wi-Fi certificates takes time to propagate and doesn't prevent physical access to the device's storage.
- C. Issuing new MFA credentials doesn't protect data already on the lost tablet.
- D. Configuring an application allow list is a preventive measure but doesn't address immediate data loss risk for an already-lost device.
Question 33
A systems engineer is configuring SSO for a business that will be using SaaS applications for its remote-only workforce. Privileged actions in SaaS applications must be allowed only from corporate mobile devices that meet minimum security requirements, but BYOD must also be permitted for other activity.
Which of the following would best meet this objective?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Configure device attestations and continuous authorization controls.
Device attestations verify that a device meets security requirements, and continuous authorization controls re-evaluate device compliance throughout the session. This approach allows privileged SaaS actions only from corporate devices meeting minimum security standards while permitting BYOD for non-privileged activities, precisely meeting the stated objective of conditional access based on device posture.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Blocking all outside connections would prevent remote workforce access to SaaS applications.
- B. Machine certificates alone do not enforce continuous security requirement verification or allow different access levels for corporate vs. BYOD devices.
- D. MDM solutions manage devices but do not provide the fine-grained conditional authorization necessary to allow BYOD for some activities while restricting privileged actions.
Question 34
A company is concerned about the security of customer data. The IT department has configured all web applications with appropriate access controls to restrict to only authorized users.
Which of the following solutions addresses this concern?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. DLP
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is the appropriate solution to protect customer data by detecting and preventing unauthorized transmission or exfiltration of sensitive information. While access controls restrict who can view data, DLP ensures that authorized users cannot inadvertently or maliciously leak sensitive data outside the organization.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. SIEM focuses on log aggregation and security event monitoring, not on preventing data loss or exfiltration.
- B. Vulnerability scanners identify weaknesses in applications and systems but do not prevent data loss or unauthorized data movement.
- D. Threat intelligence platforms provide information about external threats but do not directly address internal data protection and prevention of unauthorized data movement.
Question 35
An organization decides to move to a distributed workforce model. Several legacy systems exist on premises and cannot be migrated because of existing compliance requirements. However, all new systems are required to be cloud-based.
Which of the following would best ensure network access security?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Utilizing a VPN for all users who require legacy system access
A VPN provides secure, encrypted access for distributed workforce users to legacy on-premises systems while keeping those systems isolated from cloud infrastructure. This maintains compliance requirements for legacy systems while enabling secure remote access, which is the best approach for this hybrid environment.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Migrating legacy systems to the cloud violates the compliance requirements that prevent their movement.
- C. SDN configuration alone does not provide the necessary access control and encryption for remote users connecting to on-premises systems.
- D. Microsegmentation with a firewall as core router does not address the primary need of secure remote access for distributed users to legacy systems.
Question 36
A regulated company is in the process of refreshing its entire infrastructure. The company has a business-critical process running on an old 2008 Windows server. If this server fails, the company would lose millions of dollars in revenue.
Which of the following actions should the company should take?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Create an organizational risk register for project prioritization.
Creating an organizational risk register is the proper risk management approach for a regulated company. It allows systematic documentation and prioritization of risks (including the critical 2008 Windows server) by impact and likelihood, enabling management to make informed decisions about which risks to remediate, mitigate, or accept based on business context and available resources.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Accepting a risk that could cause millions in losses without analysis or mitigation is inappropriate for a regulated company and poor risk management practice.
- C. Network compensating controls do not address the core risk of an outdated server failure and are insufficient for a business-critical process.
- D. Insurance transfers financial risk but does not reduce operational risk or prevent the actual failure that would disrupt critical business processes.
Question 37
A company acquires a location with a large infrastructure of legacy devices. Because of the hardware's age and the legacy software's limitations, the OS cannot be upgraded, and the machines cannot be virtualized. These machines are not publicly facing, but they do have internet access. The following controls are currently in place:
• EDR
• Anti-malware
• Logging and monitoring
• Host-based firewall
• Proxied internet access
A security architect needs to supplement the existing control strategy with one that restricts unauthorized software.
Which of the following controls should the architect recommend to best supplement the existing environment?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Application control
Application control (allowlisting) is the best supplement to restrict unauthorized software execution on legacy systems that cannot be upgraded or virtualized. While EDR, anti-malware, logging, firewall, and proxy controls are present, they detect or monitor threats rather than prevent unauthorized applications from running. Application control fills this gap by explicitly allowing only approved software to execute, directly addressing the requirement to restrict unauthorized software on these legacy machines.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. SIEM aggregates and analyzes logs but does not prevent unauthorized software execution.
- B. Isolation/segmentation reduces lateral movement but does not restrict which software can run on individual machines.
- C. Conditional access controls user authentication and access to resources, not local application execution.
Question 38
A security engineer performed a code scan that resulted in many false positives. The security engineer must find a solution that improves the quality of scanning results before application deployment.
Which of the following is the best solution?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set
False positives in code scanning are reduced by tuning the scanning tool to the specific environment. Limiting the tool to the relevant coding language and adjusting the rule set to match the organization's standards and risk tolerance eliminates noise from irrelevant rules and language-specific false alarms. This directly improves scan quality before deployment without adding overhead to the deployment process.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Branch protection rules and dependency checks address deployment controls and supply chain risk, not the false positive issue in code scanning quality.
- C. Using an application vulnerability scanner in production occurs after deployment and does not solve the pre-deployment scanning quality problem.
- D. Updating code libraries before development improves code quality but does not address false positives from the scanning tool itself.
Question 39
A security architect wants to develop a baseline of security configurations. These configurations automatically will be utilized every time a new virtual machine is created.
Which of the following technologies should the security architect deploy to accomplish this goal?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Ansible
Ansible is a configuration management and automation tool that can define baseline security configurations as code and automatically apply them to new virtual machines during creation. It enables infrastructure-as-code practices where security baselines are consistently deployed across all new VMs without manual intervention.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Snort is a network intrusion detection system, not a configuration management tool.
- B. CAS (Computer Aided Software) or similar acronym does not represent a configuration baseline automation technology.
- D. CMDB (Configuration Management Database) is a repository for tracking configurations but does not automatically provision or apply baseline configurations to new VMs.
Question 40
A security officer received several complaints from users about excessive MFA push notifications at night. The security team investigates and suspects malicious activities regarding user account authentication.
Which of the following is the best way for the security officer to restrict MFA notifications?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Configuring prompt-driven MFA
Configuring prompt-driven MFA (also called approval-based or risk-adaptive MFA) requires users to explicitly approve or deny authentication attempts rather than passively receiving notifications they might ignore or dismiss. This prevents attackers from successfully obtaining access by spamming notifications, as the user actively participates in deciding whether each attempt is legitimate, and malicious attempts are rejected by the actual user.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. FIDO2 devices improve authentication security but don't inherently restrict the volume or timing of MFA notifications.
- B. Text message MFA doesn't address the notification spam problem; attackers would still spam SMS codes.
- C. Email-based OTP has the same notification spam vulnerability and doesn't provide active user decision-making on each attempt.
Question 41
A web service provider has just taken on a very large contract that comes with requirements that are currently not being implemented. In order to meet contractual requirements, the company must achieve the following thresholds:
• 99.99% uptime Load time in 3 seconds
• Response time = <1.0 seconds
Starting with the computing environment, which of the following should a security engineer recommend to best meet the requirements? (Choose three.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B, C, D. Deploying a content delivery network; Implementing server clusters; Employing bare-metal loading of applications
To meet 99.99% uptime, 3-second load time, and <1.0-second response time requirements, the company should deploy a content delivery network (B) to reduce latency and distribute content geographically, implement server clusters (C) to provide redundancy and load distribution for the 99.99% uptime requirement, and employ bare-metal loading of applications (D) to eliminate virtualization overhead and improve response times. These three directly address the performance and availability requirements specified in the contract.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A firewall at corporate headquarters does not improve uptime, load time, or response time metrics.
- E. Lowering storage I/O would degrade rather than improve response time performance.
- F. RAID on backup servers improves backup reliability but not web service availability or response time.
- G. Redundant power for developer workstations does not affect customer-facing web service performance or availability.
Question 42
Which of the following is the best reason for obtaining file hashes from a confiscated laptop?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. To later validate the integrity of each file
File hashes are obtained from confiscated devices primarily to validate the integrity of files during forensic analysis. By comparing hashes at different points in time, forensic examiners can confirm that files have not been modified, corrupted, or tampered with during the investigation process. This is a critical component of maintaining the reliability of digital evidence.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Metadata tampering prevention is not the primary function of file hashes; hashes validate file content integrity, not metadata.
- C. While hashes are unique identifiers, this is incidental to their forensic purpose of integrity validation.
- D. Chain of custody is maintained through documentation and procedures, not by obtaining hashes.
Question 43
A company experienced a data breach, resulting in the disclosure of extremely sensitive data regarding a merger. As a regulated entity, the company must comply with reporting and disclosure requirements. The company is concerned about its public image and shareholder values.
Which of the following best supports the organization in addressing its concerns?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Crisis management plan
A crisis management plan specifically addresses organizational response to major incidents including communication strategies, media relations, shareholder updates, and reputation management. This directly supports the company's concerns about public image and shareholder value following a data breach. While BIA helps understand impact, a crisis management plan provides the structured approach to managing the public and stakeholder response aspects of the breach.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Data subject access requests are procedural responses to individuals' rights; they don't address public image or shareholder concerns.
- B. Business impact analysis determines the effect of incidents but doesn't address public communications and reputation management.
- C. Supply chain management programs manage third-party risks and don't directly address breach response or stakeholder communication.
Question 44
During DAST scanning, applications are consistently reporting code defects in open-source libraries that were used to build web applications.
Most of the code defects are from using libraries with known vulnerabilities. The code defects are causing product deployment delays.
Which of the following is the best way to uncover these issues earlier in the life cycle?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Using a software dependency management solution
A software dependency management solution (such as SBOM tools, dependency scanning, or software composition analysis) identifies vulnerable open-source libraries at the earliest stages of development, before code is even deployed or scanned by DAST. This shifts vulnerability detection left in the software development lifecycle, catching known library vulnerabilities during development rather than during testing or deployment, preventing costly delays.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Application logging to SIEM monitors runtime behavior but does not identify library vulnerabilities earlier in the development cycle.
- B. WAF policies address runtime attacks but do not prevent vulnerable code from being deployed; they also cannot block issues from being discovered during DAST.
- C. IAST scanning occurs during testing phases, which is later than dependency management checks during development.
Question 45
A company is decommissioning old servers and hard drives that contain sensitive data.
Which of the following best protects against data leakage?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Shredding
Shredding is the most effective method for protecting against data leakage from decommissioned hard drives. It physically destroys the storage media, making data recovery impossible. While purging, clearing, and degaussing are data sanitization techniques, shredding provides the highest assurance that sensitive data cannot be recovered, especially given the company's concern about data on old drives being leaked.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Purging removes data but doesn't physically destroy the media, leaving it vulnerable to forensic recovery.
- B. Clearing overwrites data but may not be thorough enough for highly sensitive information and leaves the drive intact.
- D. Degaussing uses magnetic fields to erase data but may not work on all drive types and is less reliable than physical destruction.
Question 46
An organization has several systems deployed in a public cloud and wants to confirm that when data retention periods are reached, the data is properly disposed of.
Which of the following best meets the organization's needs?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Encrypting the data with customer-managed keys and then deleting both the encryption key and the volume
Encrypting data with customer-managed keys and then deleting both the encryption key and the volume ensures data is cryptographically destroyed and unrecoverable, meeting regulatory data disposal requirements. This approach is superior because it eliminates the need for external verification and guarantees the data cannot be recovered even if the physical storage is accessed. The other options either lack proper verification, rely on provider certificates without technical assurance, or use inappropriate key management approaches.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Double encryption by the cloud provider does not actually dispose of data; it still exists in encrypted form and requires deletion.
- B. Data-wiping software may not be verifiable or fully effective in cloud environments where physical storage control is limited.
- D. Relying on certificates of destruction from the provider does not guarantee technical implementation and leaves no customer control over the destruction process.
Question 47
A security architect for a global organization with a distributed workforce recently received funding to deploy a CASB solution.
Which of the following most likely explains the choice to use a proxy-based CASB?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. The capability to block unapproved applications and services is possible.
Proxy-based CASB solutions operate by intercepting traffic between users and cloud applications, allowing them to enforce policies including blocking unapproved applications and services in real-time. This is a core capability that distinguishes proxy-based approaches from API-based deployments. For a distributed workforce, the proxy model provides centralized control over which applications employees can access, making application blocking a key reason to choose this deployment method.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Privacy compliance obligations are not bypassed by any CASB deployment model; this is a misunderstanding of how user-based vs. API-based deployments function.
- C. API key rotation requirements apply to API-based CASBs, not proxy-based ones, so this would argue against proxy deployment.
- D. Certificate deployment to corporate devices is a standard capability of proxy-based CASBs and is not a limitation; modern solutions support certificate deployment whether on-premises or cloud-connected.
Question 48
A security analyst received a notification from a cloud service provider regarding an attack detected on a web server. The cloud service provider shared the following information about the attack:
• The attack came from inside the network.
• The attacking source IP was from the internal vulnerability scanners
• The scanner is not configured to target the cloud servers.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host
The evidence indicates the internal vulnerability scanner is misconfigured and scanning out-of-scope cloud servers despite not being configured to do so. The first action is to correct the scanner's configuration to prevent it from targeting those hosts. This stops false positives at the source and prevents unnecessary alerts. While the scanner is internal and likely not malicious, fixing the root cause is the most direct and appropriate first response.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Creating an allow list masks the underlying configuration problem rather than solving it; the scanner should never be targeting these hosts in the first place.
- C. Setting network behavior analysis rules is a secondary control that doesn't address the misconfiguration of the scanner itself.
- D. Quarantining the scanner for forensic analysis is premature; there's no evidence of compromise, the scanner is simply misconfigured, not compromised.
Question 49
A security analyst detected unusual network traffic related to program updating processes. The analyst collected artifacts from compromised user workstations. The discovered artifacts were binary files with the same name as existing valid binaries but with different hashes.
Which of the following solutions would most likely prevent this situation from reoccurring?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Implementing digital signature
The attack replaced valid binaries with malicious ones having identical names but different hashes. Digital signatures verify that binaries haven't been modified and come from trusted sources. When an application or OS checks the digital signature before executing a binary, it will reject the malicious replacement because it lacks the proper cryptographic signature, preventing the attack from succeeding.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Improving patching processes addresses vulnerability management but doesn't prevent binary substitution attacks or verify file integrity.
- C. Manual USB updates don't prevent binary substitution; attackers could still replace binaries during the update process or on the system afterward.
- D. Allowing only internal source files doesn't guarantee integrity; compromised internal sources or man-in-the-middle attacks during delivery could still result in malicious binaries.
Question 50
An organization's board of directors has asked the Chief Information Security Officer to build a third-party management program.
Which of the following best explains a reason for this request?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Supply chain visibility
Supply chain visibility is the primary reason boards request third-party management programs. Organizations depend on external vendors and suppliers, creating supply chain risks from security breaches, compromised dependencies, and vendor failures. A comprehensive third-party management program provides visibility into these risks. Risk transference involves insurance or contracts but doesn't explain the need for a management program; support availability is operational rather than strategic; vulnerability management is internal security, not third-party focused.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Risk transference through insurance is an outcome, not the primary driver for establishing a third-party management program.
- C. Support availability concerns vendor responsiveness but is not the strategic board-level driver for third-party management.
- D. Vulnerability management is an internal security practice, not the primary reason for third-party program establishment.
Question 51
Audit findings indicate several user endpoints are not utilizing full disk encryption. During the remediation process, a compliance analyst reviews the testing details for the endpoints and notes the endpoint device configuration does not support full disk encryption.
Which of the following is the most likely reason the device must be replaced?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The motherboard was not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier
Full disk encryption on modern systems relies on a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to securely store encryption keys and seal the disk encryption. If the motherboard lacks a TPM from the OEM, the device cannot support full disk encryption at all. Without hardware-based key storage and sealing, full disk encryption cannot meet security compliance requirements, necessitating device replacement.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is used for enterprise key management, not endpoint full disk encryption; TPM serves this endpoint function.
- B. A vTPM (virtual TPM) can be re-initialized; a corrupt vTPM would not necessarily require replacing the entire device.
- C. While firmware vulnerabilities may exist, a TPM firmware upgrade addresses this rather than requiring device replacement.
- E. HSM sealing storage is not the standard mechanism for endpoint full disk encryption; TPM sealing is the relevant technology.
Question 52
A security engineer would like to control configurations on mobile devices while fulfilling the following requirements:
Support and control Apple and Android devices.
The device must be corporate-owned.
Which of the following would enable the engineer to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C, E. Implement an MDM solution; Update policy to prohibit the use of BYOD devices.
MDM (Mobile Device Management) solutions directly address the requirement to control configurations on both Apple and Android corporate-owned devices, providing comprehensive device management capabilities. Updating policy to prohibit BYOD devices ensures only corporate-owned devices are used, which combined with MDM satisfies both requirements. These are the only two options that directly address controlling corporate-owned mobile devices across both platforms.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Group Policy is a Windows-centric tool that does not support Apple and Android device management.
- B. Acceptable use policy updates are administrative measures that do not provide technical control over device configurations.
- D. Captive portal solutions control network access but do not manage device configurations.
- F. RADIUS is an authentication protocol and does not provide device configuration management for mobile platforms.
Question 53
An organization plans to deploy new software. The project manager compiles a list of roles that will be involved in different phases of the deployment life cycle.
Which of the following should the project manager use to track these roles?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. RACI matrix
A RACI matrix (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) is the standard tool for tracking roles and responsibilities across project phases. It clearly defines which roles are involved in each phase of the deployment lifecycle and documents their level of involvement, making it ideal for this scenario.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. CMDB (Configuration Management Database) tracks IT assets and their relationships, not project roles and responsibilities.
- B. Recall tree is not a standard project management tool for tracking roles.
- C. ITIL is a framework for IT service management best practices, not a specific tracking tool for project roles.
Question 54
Which of the following best explains why AI output could be inaccurate?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Prompt injections
Prompt injections are attacks where maliciously crafted input is designed to manipulate AI model behavior and cause it to produce inaccurate or unintended outputs. This directly causes AI output inaccuracy by exploiting the model's processing of adversarial prompts, which is the most direct and common cause of AI output errors in production systems.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Model poisoning occurs during training with contaminated data but does not explain inaccuracy in a deployed model generating incorrect outputs.
- B. Social engineering targets humans and organizations, not AI models directly, and does not cause AI output inaccuracy.
- C. Output handling refers to how results are processed after generation but does not cause the AI itself to produce inaccurate outputs.
Question 55
During an audit at an organization, auditors find that developers are able to promote code to production. The auditors request a full review of all production changes.
Which of the following should the organization implement to prevent a full review in the future?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Branch protection
Branch protection enforces rules such as required pull request reviews and approvals before code can be merged into the production branch. This technically prevents developers from promoting unreviewed code and leaves an auditable approval trail for every change, so auditors no longer need to review all production changes.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. A centralized repository keeps code in one place but does not stop developers from pushing changes to production without review.
- C. Interactive application security testing finds vulnerabilities in running code but does not control who can promote code.
- D. A change control board is a manual governance step that developers could still bypass if they retain the technical ability to promote code.
Question 56
A security analyst discovers a new device on the company's dedicated IoT subnet during the most recent vulnerability scan. The scan results show numerous open ports and insecure protocols in addition to default usernames and passwords. A camera needs to transmit video to the security server in the IoT subnet.
Which of the following should the security analyst recommend to securely operate the camera?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Harden the camera configuration.
Hardening the camera configuration is the primary security recommendation. This involves changing default usernames and passwords, closing unnecessary ports, disabling insecure protocols, and applying security best practices specific to the camera device. While the camera is already on the IoT subnet, hardening addresses the root causes of the vulnerabilities discovered in the scan and is essential for secure operation.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Sending logs to SIEM is monitoring, not remediation, and does not fix the underlying security issues.
- C. Encrypting the video stream is good practice but doesn't address the open ports and default credentials discovered.
- D. Isolation alone doesn't remedy the vulnerabilities; the device must still be hardened to operate securely within the segment.
Question 57
The principal security analyst for a global manufacturer is investigating a security incident related to abnormal behavior in the ICS network. A controller was restarted as part of the troubleshooting process, and the following issue was identified when the controller was restarted:
SECURE BOOT FAILED:
FIRMWARE MISMATCH EXPECTED UXFDC479 ACTUAL 0x79F31B
During the investigation, this modified firmware version was identified on several other controllers at the site. The official vendor firmware versions do not have this checksum.
Which of the following stages of the MITRE ATT&CK framework for ICS includes this technique?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Persistence
The modified firmware on the controllers represents a persistence technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework for ICS. The attacker has modified the firmware to maintain a presence on the systems that survives reboots and normal operations. The firmware mismatch detected during the secure boot process indicates the firmware has been altered from the official vendor version, which is a classic persistence mechanism in ICS environments where firmware modification provides long-term unauthorized access.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Evasion techniques are used to avoid detection, not to maintain persistent access.
- C. Collection techniques involve gathering data, not modifying system firmware for persistence.
- D. Lateral movement refers to moving between systems, not maintaining presence on a single controller through firmware modification.
Question 58
A global company with a remote workforce implemented a new VPN solution. After deploying the VPN solution to several hundred users, the help desk starts receiving reports of slow access to both internally and externally available applications. A security analyst reviews the following:
VPN client routing:
0.0.0.0/0 eth1
Which of the following solutions should the analyst use to fix this issue?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Enable split tunneling.
The routing configuration 0.0.0.0/0 eth1 indicates all traffic is being forced through the VPN tunnel, causing performance degradation. Split tunneling allows local and non-sensitive traffic to bypass the VPN while only sensitive traffic routes through it, reducing bottlenecks and improving access speeds for both internal and external applications.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Moving servers to a screened subnet is a network architecture change unrelated to VPN routing configuration causing slow performance.
- C. Network Access Control (NAC) solutions enforce device compliance policies but do not address routing-induced performance issues.
- D. DNS over HTTPS encrypts DNS queries but does not solve the fundamental routing congestion problem causing slow access.
Question 59
Which of the following best explains the business requirement a healthcare provider fulfills by encrypting patient data at rest?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability
Encrypting patient data at rest fulfills the business requirement of protecting privacy while supporting portability. This addresses HIPAA and similar healthcare privacy regulations that require patient data protection, while encryption allows secure data movement between systems and providers. The requirement balances confidentiality with the healthcare industry's need to share and transfer patient records.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Securing data transfer between hospitals is addressed by encryption in transit, not at rest.
- B. Non-repudiation requires digital signatures and authentication mechanisms, not encryption at rest.
- C. While encryption can help reduce liability, the primary business requirement is privacy compliance rather than liability reduction.
Question 60
A security analyst received the following finding from a cloud security assessment tool:
Virtual Machine Data Disk is encrypted with the default encryption key.
Because the organization hosts highly sensitive data files, regulations dictate it must be encrypted so It is unreadable to the CSP.
Which of the following should be implemented to remediate the finding and meet the regulatory requirement? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, E. Disk encryption with customer-provided keys; File-level encryption with customer-provided keys
To meet the regulatory requirement that data be encrypted so it is unreadable to the Cloud Service Provider, the organization must control the encryption keys. Answer A (disk encryption with customer-provided keys) ensures the CSP cannot read the encrypted data at the disk level. Answer E (file-level encryption with customer-provided keys) provides additional encryption at the file level with customer-controlled keys. Both solutions ensure the CSP lacks access to unencrypted data and its encryption keys.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Third-party provided keys still mean the CSP could potentially access keys or data through the third party.
- C. Row-level encryption with key escrow may expose keys to the CSP or escrow agent, not meeting the requirement.
- D. Cloud vendor-provided keys means the CSP controls the keys, failing to meet the requirement that data be unreadable to the CSP.
- F. Cross-signed certificates do not provide encryption and don't prevent CSP access to data.
Question 61
A security analyst discovered requests associated with IP addresses known for both legitimate and bot-related traffic.
Which of the following should the analyst use to determine whether the requests are malicious?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. User-agent string
The user-agent string is the most reliable indicator to distinguish legitimate traffic from bot traffic. User-agents identify the client software (browser type and version), and bots typically use identifiable user-agent strings or known malicious bot signatures, whereas legitimate users use standard browser user-agents. This allows differentiation of requests from the same IP address.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Byte length of the request varies normally across legitimate requests and is not a reliable indicator of malicious intent.
- C. Web application headers alone do not uniquely identify bot versus legitimate traffic from the same IP address.
- D. HTML encoding field is not a standard request attribute and does not reliably distinguish bot from legitimate requests.
Question 62
A company is developing an application that will be used to perform e-commerce transactions for a subscription-based service. The application must be able to use previously saved payment methods to perform recurring transactions.
Which of the following is the most appropriate?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Tokenization through an HSM
Tokenization through an HSM (Hardware Security Module) is the most appropriate solution for handling recurring payment transactions. Tokenization replaces sensitive payment card data with non-sensitive tokens, ensuring that actual payment information is never stored in the application. The HSM provides secure generation and management of these tokens, meeting both security best practices and regulatory requirements for e-commerce payment processing.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Self-encrypting disks with field-level encryption stores actual payment data in encrypted form, which is not ideal compared to tokenization.
- C. NX/XN implementation relates to memory protection and does not address payment card data security.
- D. Token-based access controls user authentication but does not protect payment method data.
- E. Address space layout randomization is a memory protection technique unrelated to payment data security.
Question 63
A cloud engineer needs to identify appropriate solutions to:
• Provide secure access to internal and external cloud resources.
• Eliminate split-tunnel traffic flows.
• Enable identity and access management capabilities.
Which of the following solutions is the most appropriate?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. SASE
SASE (Secure Access Service Edge) integrates network security and wide-area network capabilities to provide secure access to both internal and external cloud resources, eliminates split-tunnel traffic by enforcing all traffic through the security service, and includes identity and access management capabilities. This converged architecture meets all three requirements in a unified solution. Microsegmentation provides network isolation but lacks cloud resource access and IAM integration. PAM focuses on privileged access management without addressing cloud connectivity or eliminating split-tunnel issues. SD-WAN optimizes traffic but does not inherently provide security or IAM capabilities.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Microsegmentation provides network isolation but does not address secure cloud resource access or include IAM capabilities.
- B. PAM manages privileged account access but does not provide cloud connectivity solutions or eliminate split-tunnel traffic.
- C. SD-WAN optimizes network performance but does not provide integrated security or IAM capabilities.
Question 64
Which of the following best explain why organizations prefer to utilize code that is digitally signed? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, B. It provides origin assurance; It verifies integrity.
Digital signatures on code provide two critical security properties. Origin assurance (A) proves the code came from the claimed publisher and has not been spoofed. Integrity verification (B) ensures the code has not been modified since it was signed, any tampering invalidates the signature. Together these provide strong trust that code is from a legitimate source and has not been altered.
Why the other options are wrong
- C. Confidentiality prevents unauthorized reading of data; code signing focuses on authenticity and integrity, not secrecy.
- D. Code signing does not inherently integrate with DRM systems; they are separate security technologies.
- E. Code signing authenticates the sender/origin, not the recipient's identity.
- F. Signing proves integrity but does not guarantee the code is malware-free; malicious code can still be validly signed.
Question 65
A financial technology firm works collaboratively with business partners in the industry to share threat intelligence within a central platform. This collaboration gives partner organizations the ability to obtain and share data associated with emerging threats from a variety of adversaries.
Which of the following should the organization most likely leverage to facilitate this activity?
(Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D, E. STIX; TAXII
STIX (Structured Threat Information Expression) and TAXII (Trusted Automated Exchange of Intelligence Information) are the standard protocols for sharing threat intelligence between organizations. STIX provides the data format for representing threat information in a standardized way, while TAXII provides the transport mechanism for exchanging that intelligence across organizational boundaries through a central platform. Together, they enable the collaborative threat intelligence sharing scenario described.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. CWPP (Cloud Workload Protection Platform) focuses on protecting cloud workloads, not on standardized threat intelligence sharing formats.
- B. YARA is a malware research tool for creating rules to identify and classify malware, not a framework for sharing threat intelligence between organizations.
- C. ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge) is a knowledge base for adversary behaviors but is not a protocol for exchanging threat data between partners.
- F. JTAG is a hardware debugging interface and is completely unrelated to threat intelligence sharing.
Question 66
A hotel chain wants to use point-of-sale systems to allow customers to check in and out of their rooms without employee assistance. These systems should limit access to a specific set of programs approved to run, with all other programs blocked.
Which of the following should the company configure to best support this goal?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Application control using a fresh image, with the applications fully configured as a baseline to build and block other applications from execution
Application control with a fresh baseline image is the best approach to limit execution to only approved programs. This implements a whitelist model where a clean system image is established with only necessary applications, and all other programs are blocked from execution, providing the strongest control for the point-of-sale use case.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Host-based intrusion detection monitors and alerts on suspicious activities but does not proactively block unapproved applications.
- C. Anti-malware can be bypassed and does not enforce application control; it reacts to threats rather than preventing unauthorized execution.
- D. Event logging collects data for analysis but does not prevent unapproved applications from running; it's detective rather than preventive.
Question 67
A company wants to implement a three-tier approach to separate the web, database, and application servers. A security administrator must harden the environment.
Which of the following is the best solution?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Implementing microsegmentation on the server VLANs
Microsegmentation implements fine-grained access controls within the server VLANs, restricting communication between web, database, and application tiers to only necessary flows. This zero-trust approach hardens the environment by assuming breach and limiting lateral movement, which is the primary hardening concern in a three-tier architecture. A VPN prevents remote access but does not segment internal server communication. SASE restricts user access but does not segment server-to-server communication within the three tiers. A firewall as network core improves perimeter security but does not provide granular internal segmentation between the three tiers.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A VPN controls remote access but does not segment communication between the three server tiers internally.
- B. SASE restricts user-to-resource communication but does not segment server-to-server traffic within the three tiers.
- D. A firewall core improves perimeter defense but does not provide the internal segmentation needed between web, application, and database tiers.
Question 68
A software engineer is creating a CI/CD pipeline to support the development of a web application. The DevSecOps team is required to identify syntax errors.
Which of the following is the most relevant to the DevSecOps team's task?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Static application security testing
Static Application Security Testing (SAST) analyzes source code without execution to identify syntax errors, logic flaws, and security vulnerabilities during development. This is the most relevant tool for a DevSecOps team tasked with identifying syntax errors in a CI/CD pipeline, as it operates on code directly before compilation or deployment.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Software composition analysis identifies vulnerabilities in dependencies and third-party libraries, not syntax errors in application code.
- C. Runtime application self-protection monitors and protects during execution, not during development for syntax error detection.
- D. Web application vulnerability scanning tests running applications dynamically, not syntax errors in source code during the pipeline.
Question 69
A company recently acquired a SaaS company and performed a gap analysis. The results of the gap analysis Indicate security controls are absent throughout the SDLC and have led to several vulnerable production releases.
Which of the following security tools best reduces the risk of vulnerable code being pushed to production in the future?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Static application security testing
Static application security testing (SAST) analyzes source code before compilation to identify vulnerabilities early in the development lifecycle, preventing vulnerable code from being built and deployed to production. SAST directly addresses the gap of missing security controls throughout the SDLC and reduces the risk of vulnerable releases at the earliest possible stage.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Regression testing validates that existing functionality still works after changes but does not specifically identify or prevent security vulnerabilities.
- C. Code signing verifies code authenticity and integrity after deployment but does not prevent vulnerable code from being deployed in the first place.
- D. Sandboxing is a runtime containment mechanism that reduces impact but does not prevent vulnerable code from being released to production.
Question 70
A security analyst identified a vulnerable and deprecated runtime engine that Is supporting a public-facing banking application. The developers anticipate the transition to modern development environments will take at least a month.
Which of the following controls would best mitigate the risk without interrupting the service during the transition?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Configuring IPS and WAF with signatures
Configuring IPS and WAF with signatures best mitigates the risk of the vulnerable deprecated runtime while maintaining service availability during the one-month transition. These defensive tools can detect and block exploit attempts targeting known vulnerabilities in the runtime engine without requiring the application to go offline or the runtime to be uninstalled.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Shutting down a public-facing banking application is not acceptable and defeats the purpose of finding a compensating control.
- B. Uninstalling the runtime engine would break the application, interrupting critical banking services.
- C. Blocking traffic on the affected port would disable the application entirely, causing service interruption.
Question 71
A company wants to perform threat modeling on an internally developed, business-critical application. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is most concerned that the application should maintain 99.999% availability and authorized users should only be able to gain access to data they are explicitly authorized to view.
Which of the following threat-modeling frameworks directly addresses the CISO’s concerns about this system?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. STRIDE
STRIDE is a threat modeling framework developed by Microsoft that specifically addresses six threat categories: Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege. The CISO's concerns directly map to STRIDE: availability (addressed by Denial of Service threats) and authorization/data access (addressed by Information Disclosure and Elevation of Privilege threats), making STRIDE the framework that directly addresses both concerns.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. CAPEC (Common Attack Pattern Enumeration and Classification) documents attack patterns but doesn't provide a structured framework for threat modeling.
- C. ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge) maps adversary behaviors but focuses on post-compromise activities, not pre-attack threat modeling.
- D. TAXII (Trusted Automated Exchange of Indicator Information) is a protocol for threat intelligence sharing, not a threat modeling framework.
Question 72
An ISAC supplied recent threat intelligence information about pictures used on social media that provide reconnaissance of systems in use in secure facilities. In response, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants several configuration changes implemented via the MDM to ensure the following:
• Camera functions and location services are blocked for corporate mobile devices.
• All social media is blocked on the corporate and guest wireless networks.
Which of the following is the CISO practicing to safeguard against the threat?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Operational security
Operational Security (OPSEC) is the practice of identifying and protecting sensitive information from adversary exploitation. By blocking cameras and location services to prevent reconnaissance through social media pictures, and blocking social media access to prevent both data exfiltration and reconnaissance, the CISO is implementing OPSEC controls to safeguard facility information from threat actors.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Adversary emulation involves simulating attacker behavior for testing and validation, not implementing defensive controls.
- C. Open-source intelligence is the gathering of information from public sources; the CISO is preventing this information gathering through controls.
- D. Social engineering involves manipulating people into disclosure; the threat here is about physical reconnaissance through photos, not human manipulation.
Question 73
Recently, two large engineering companies in the same line of business decided to approach cyberthreats in a united way.
Which of the following best describes this unified approach?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. MOU
A Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) is a formal agreement between two organizations to cooperate and work together toward shared objectives. It establishes mutual intent and framework for collaboration, making it the appropriate instrument for two companies to formalize their unified approach to cyberthreats.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. An NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) only protects confidential information and does not establish a framework for unified cyberthreat response.
- B. A SOW (Statement of Work) is a detailed contract for specific project deliverables, not a high-level agreement for unified approach.
- C. An SLA (Service Level Agreement) defines specific service standards and remedies between a service provider and customer, not a partnership framework.
Question 74
A security engineer receives reports through the organization's bug bounty program about remote code execution in a specific component in a custom application. Management wants to properly secure the component and proactively avoid similar issues.
Which of the following is the best approach to uncover additional vulnerable paths in the application?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Use fuzz testing to uncover potential vulnerabilities in the application.
Fuzz testing is the best approach to proactively uncover additional vulnerable code paths in a custom application. It involves sending random, malformed, or unexpected inputs to the component to trigger unexpected behavior and crashes, revealing vulnerabilities similar to the remote code execution already discovered. Fuzz testing is designed to find input-handling flaws and edge cases that could lead to exploitable conditions.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Exploitation frameworks are used to verify known vulnerabilities, not to discover new vulnerable paths in code.
- C. Software composition analysis finds known vulnerabilities in third-party dependencies, not in custom application code logic.
- D. Reverse engineering is time-intensive and less systematic than fuzz testing for discovering multiple vulnerability paths.
- E. HTTP intercepting proxies are useful for dynamic web application testing but are less effective at discovering code path vulnerabilities than fuzz testing.
Question 75
A security analyst detects a possible RAT infection on a computer in the internal network. After reviewing the details of the alert, the analyst identifies the initial vector of the attack was an email that was forwarded to multiple recipients in the same organizational unit.
Which of the following should the analyst do first to minimize this type of threat in the future?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Implement a security awareness program in the organization.
The attack vector was a phishing email forwarded to multiple users, which indicates a human security awareness gap. Implementing a security awareness program addresses the root cause by training employees to recognize and report suspicious emails, reducing email-based attack success rates. EDR solutions detect infections after they occur but do not prevent initial compromise through email. Penetration testing identifies technology gaps but requires resources and does not provide ongoing prevention. IPS solutions on internal networks cannot prevent initial email-based infection vectors from external sources.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. While EDR is valuable, it detects infections after compromise rather than preventing email-based attacks before they occur.
- B. Penetration testing identifies gaps but does not prevent the fundamental issue of users forwarding suspicious emails.
- C. IPS on internal networks cannot block the initial email vector from external sources and does not address user behavior.
Question 76
A security administrator is setting up a virtualization solution that needs to run services from a single host. Each service should be the only one running in its environment. Each environment needs to have its own operating system as a base but share the kernel version and properties of the running host.
Which of the following technologies would best meet these requirements?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Containers
Containers meet all the stated requirements: each service runs in isolation as the only process in its environment, each has its own filesystem and application stack, and all containers share the kernel and properties of the host operating system. Containers are lightweight, run multiple isolated environments on a single host, and share the underlying kernel, making them ideal for this scenario.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Type 1 hypervisors require separate operating systems for each virtual machine, not kernel sharing.
- C. Type 2 hypervisors also require separate guest operating systems rather than kernel sharing.
- D. Virtual desktop infrastructure provides isolated desktop environments but is designed for user sessions, not services sharing a kernel.
- E. Emulation creates full system simulation, not the lightweight kernel-sharing approach described.
Question 77
A company implemented a NIDS and a NIPS on the most critical environments. Since this implementation the company has been experiencing network connectivity issues.
Which of the following should the security architect recommend for a new NIDS/NIPS implementation?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Implementing the NIDS with a port mirror in the core switch and the NIPS in the main firewall
A port mirror (SPAN) on the core switch allows NIDS to passively monitor traffic without impacting network performance, while placing NIPS at the firewall boundary provides active threat prevention at the network perimeter. This architecture avoids the connectivity issues caused by inline placement of both systems, which can create bottlenecks and single points of failure in critical environments.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Implementing both NIDS and NIPS together at the firewall creates performance bottlenecks and was likely the cause of the original connectivity issues.
- C. Removing NIPS eliminates active threat prevention capabilities needed for critical environments.
- D. Placing NIDS on a bastion host and NIPS on branch routers fails to protect the core critical environment and doesn't address the central network monitoring need.
Question 78
An analyst is working to address a potential compromise of a corporate endpoint and discovers the attacker accessed a user's credentials.
However, it is unclear if the system baseline was modified to achieve persistence.
Which of the following would most likely support forensic activities in this scenario?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Bit-level disk duplication
Bit-level disk duplication creates a forensic image of the entire disk at the binary level, preserving all data including deleted files, system artifacts, and baseline information. This comprehensive image allows the analyst to compare the current system state against known-good baselines and reconstruct what was modified to achieve persistence. It captures the exact state of the system for detailed forensic examination.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Side-channel analysis examines indirect information leaks (timing, power consumption) and is not applicable to detecting baseline modifications.
- C. Software composition analysis examines software components and dependencies, not whether system baselines have been modified.
- D. A SCAP scanner identifies compliance and vulnerability issues but does not provide the bit-level forensic data needed to determine if baselines were modified.
Question 79
A security analyst was monitoring the networks of a group of companies. The analyst identified several periods of concentrated, coordinated activity by unknown actors. The activity repeated at regular intervals and affected all the companies. Minor hardware outages that correlated with the same times as the discovered activity escalated in severity.
Which of the following threat actors was most likely involved?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. An advanced persistent threat financed by a nation-state
The indicators point to a nation-state APT: coordinated activity across multiple companies, regular intervals suggesting long-term operations, and correlation with escalating hardware outages indicating sophisticated infrastructure targeting. Nation-states have the resources, coordination, and persistence to conduct multi-target campaigns with infrastructure attack capabilities.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Organized crime typically targets specific high-value victims for ransomware rather than coordinating across multiple companies at regular intervals.
- B. Politically motivated hacktivists lack the coordination and sophistication for infrastructure-level attacks on multiple entities.
- C. Disgruntled employees lack the ability to coordinate across multiple companies and access to external infrastructure for synchronized attacks.
Question 80
A subcontractor develops safety critical avionics software for a major aircraft manufacturer. After an incident, a third-party investigator recommends the company begin to employ formal methods in the development life cycle.
Which of the following findings from the investigation most directly supports the investigator's recommendation?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The codebase lacks traceability to functional and non-functional requirements.
Formal methods mathematically verify that code implementation matches specified requirements, which directly prevents errors from untraced or misunderstood requirements. In safety-critical avionics, lack of traceability between code and requirements is a critical vulnerability that formal methods address through rigorous verification. This is far more relevant to formal methods than other options, which address different concerns like supply chain, testing practices, or resource efficiency.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Bill of materials issues relate to supply chain transparency and component tracking, not to formal verification methods.
- B. Dynamic and interactive testing gaps address test coverage but not the requirement traceability problem that formal methods solve.
- D. Resource management inefficiency is an optimization concern, not a safety-critical correctness issue that formal methods are designed to address.
Question 81
A news organization wants to implement workflows that allow users to request that untruthful data be retraced and scrubbed from online publications to comply with the right to be forgotten.
Which of the following regulations is the organization most likely trying to address?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. GDPR
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) includes the 'right to be forgotten,' which requires organizations to remove personal data upon request. This right specifically covers scenarios where individuals can request deletion and removal of their information from online publications to address untruthful data.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. COPPA (Children's Online Privacy Protection Act) focuses on protecting children's privacy online, not the right to be forgotten for adults.
- C. CCPA (California Consumer Privacy Act) provides privacy rights but does not have the same explicit right to be forgotten as GDPR.
- D. DORA (Digital Operational Resilience Act) is an EU regulation focused on operational resilience for financial entities, not data erasure rights.
Question 82
Which of the following best explains the importance of determining organizational risk appetite when operating with a constrained budget?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Risk appetite directly impacts acceptance of high-impact, low-likelihood events.
Risk appetite defines an organization's willingness to accept different types of risk, and understanding this is critical when budgets are constrained. It helps prioritize which high-impact, low-likelihood events are acceptable to leave unmitigated versus which risks require investment, enabling informed decisions about where limited security resources are allocated.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. While true that risk appetite varies by organization, this is descriptive rather than explaining the importance of determining it under budget constraints.
- C. Budgetary pressure does not drive all companies' risk mitigation planning uniformly; risk appetite determines how each organization responds to constraints.
- D. Risk appetite does not directly influence breach disclosure decisions, which are governed by regulatory requirements and incident response policies.
Question 83
A pharmaceutical company uses a cloud provider to host thousands of independent resources in object storage. The company needs a practical and effective means of discovering data, monitoring changes, and identifying suspicious activity.
Which of the following would best meet these requirements?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. A machine-learning-based data security service
A machine-learning-based data security service is specifically designed to discover sensitive data across cloud storage, monitor changes in real-time, and identify suspicious activity patterns through behavioral analysis. It provides comprehensive protection for thousands of independent resources by automatically learning what constitutes normal versus anomalous behavior in a large-scale cloud environment.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. File integrity monitoring focuses on detecting unauthorized changes to known files but lacks data discovery and suspicious activity identification capabilities needed for thousands of independent resources.
- C. Cloud configuration assessment addresses compliance and configuration issues but does not specialize in discovering sensitive data or identifying suspicious activity patterns.
- D. Automated data classification organizes data but does not provide monitoring of changes or detection of suspicious activity.
Question 84
A company designs policies and procedures for hardening containers deployed in the production environment. However, a security assessment reveals that deployed containers are not complying with the security baseline.
Which of the following solutions best addresses this issue throughout early life-cycle stages?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Creating a pipeline to check the containers through security gates and validating the baseline controls before the final deployment
Creating a security pipeline that validates baseline controls before final deployment (C) prevents non-compliant containers from ever reaching production, addressing the compliance gap at the earliest possible lifecycle stage. This shift-left approach integrates security gates into the build/deployment process rather than discovering violations after deployment. Endpoint agents (A) monitor post-deployment drift reactively, hardened images (B) alone don't guarantee compliance without validation, and regular assessments (D) detect issues only after containers are already running in production.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Endpoint agents deployed on containers only detect drift after deployment; they don't prevent non-compliant containers from reaching production.
- B. While hardened images are good practice, they don't guarantee compliance without validation mechanisms during the deployment process.
- D. Running assessments on production containers only identifies problems after they're already deployed and operational, violating security baselines.
Question 85
A security engineer is performing a vulnerability management scan on multihomed Linux systems. The engineer notices that the vulnerability count is high due to the fact that each vulnerability is multiplied by the number of NICs on each system.
Which of the following should the engineer do to deduplicate the vulnerabilities and to associate the vulnerabilities with a particular host?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Deploy an agent.
Deploying an agent on multihomed Linux systems allows the vulnerability scanner to identify the actual host by its unique identifier rather than treating each NIC as a separate entity. Agents run on the host itself and can deduplicate vulnerabilities across multiple network interfaces, associating all findings with the single underlying host. This eliminates the false multiplication of vulnerability counts caused by scanning each NIC independently.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A SCAP scanner alone would not address the multihoming deduplication issue without additional host identification.
- C. A discovery scan identifies devices but does not deduplicate vulnerabilities found across multiple NICs.
- D. Nmap is a network discovery tool that would not resolve the deduplication problem of multihomed systems.
Question 86
A senior cybersecurity engineer is solving a digital certificate issue in which the CA denied certificate issuance due to failed subject identity validation. At which of the following steps within the PKI enrollment process would the denial have occurred?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. RA
The Registration Authority (RA) is responsible for identity and subject validation before certificate requests are submitted to the Certificate Authority. The RA performs initial verification of the requestor's identity and eligibility, so if identity validation fails, the denial occurs at the RA step before the request ever reaches the CA for issuance.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. OCSP is a protocol for checking revocation status after certificate issuance, not part of the initial enrollment validation process.
- C. While the CA issues certificates, the identity validation denial would have already occurred at the RA stage before reaching the CA.
- D. IdP (Identity Provider) is relevant to federated authentication scenarios, not the formal PKI enrollment and validation process described.
Question 87
A help desk technician is troubleshooting an issue with an employee's laptop that will not boot into its operating system. The employee reported the laptop had been stolen but then found it one day later. The employee has asked the technician for help recovering important data. The technician has identified the following:
The laptop operating system was not configured with BitLocker.
The hard drive has no hardware failures.
Data is present and readable on the hard drive, although it appears to be illegible.
Which of the following is the most likely reason the technician is unable to retrieve legible data from the hard drive?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The hard drive experienced crypto-shredding.
Crypto-shredding is a technique where an attacker encrypts a victim's data and then destroys the encryption keys, rendering the data unrecoverable even though it physically exists on the drive. This explains why data is present and readable at the physical level but appears illegible. Since BitLocker was not configured, the attacker likely used their own encryption method. The data cannot be recovered without the original encryption key.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Password changes would not cause physical data on the drive to become illegible; the OS simply wouldn't boot, but the raw data would still be readable.
- B. PKI certificate revocation affects authentication and digital signatures, not the physical readability of stored data on a hard drive.
- D. An incorrect cipher wouldn't be applicable here since the technician can read the data at a physical level; the issue is that the data itself is encrypted by an unknown cipher without access to keys.
Question 88
A nation-state actor is exposed for attacking large corporations by establishing persistence in smaller companies that are likely to be acquired by these large corporations. The actor then provisions user accounts in the companies for use post-acquisition. Before an upcoming acquisition, a security officer conducts threat modeling with this attack vector.
Which of the following practices is the best way to investigate this threat?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Comparing all existing credentials to personnel and services
Comparing all existing credentials to personnel and services records directly identifies unauthorized or ghost accounts that may have been created by the adversary for post-acquisition persistence. This is the most effective way to detect this specific attack vector, as it reveals the actual artifacts of the compromise (orphaned user accounts) rather than attempting to prevent acquisition discussion or block geographic traffic.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Restricting traffic by country is ineffective against determined nation-state actors using proxies and does not address already-established persistence.
- C. Vendor auditing is part of supply chain security but does not investigate the specific threat of pre-positioned user accounts already in place.
- D. Holding information about acquisitions is impractical and does not investigate existing threats or account anomalies.
Question 89
A security officer performs due diligence activities before implementing a third-party solution into the enterprise environment. The security officer needs evidence from the third party that a data subject access request handling process is in place.
Which of the following is the security officer most likely seeking to maintain compliance?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Privacy regulations
The security officer is seeking to maintain compliance with privacy regulations. A data subject access request (DSAR) handling process is a requirement under privacy regulations such as GDPR, CCPA, and similar laws that mandate organizations provide individuals access to their personal data. This is a core privacy regulatory obligation.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Information security standards address security controls but not specifically data subject access request handling.
- B. E-discovery requirements relate to legal proceedings and litigation data management, not general privacy obligations.
- D. Certification requirements vary and are not specifically tied to DSAR processes.
- E. Reporting frameworks address how organizations communicate security events and incidents, not DSAR handling.
Question 90
An organization needs to classify its systems and data in accordance with external requirements.
Which of the following roles is best qualified to perform this task?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Data owner
The data owner is the role best qualified to classify systems and data. Data owners have the authority and responsibility for determining the sensitivity and classification of data assets in accordance with organizational policies and external requirements. They understand the business value and regulatory context of the data.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Systems administrators manage infrastructure but lack the authority to determine data classification.
- C. Data processors handle data on behalf of others but do not have classification authority.
- D. Data custodians maintain and protect data according to established classifications but don't create the classifications.
- E. Data stewards oversee data governance but the data owner holds the primary classification responsibility.
Question 91
A security engineer reviews an after-action report from a previous security breach and notes a long lag time between detection and containment of a compromised account. The engineer suggests using SOAR to address this concern.
Which of the following best explains the engineer's goal?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. To prepare runbooks to automate future incident response
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) platforms are designed to automate incident response workflows through pre-built runbooks. By automating the response to compromised accounts, the organization can significantly reduce the lag time between detection and containment. This directly addresses the engineer's concern about the slow containment process identified in the breach report.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. SOAR is an incident response tool, not a preventive control that stops account compromise.
- B. Log correlation using machine learning is an analytics function; SOAR is primarily about orchestration and automation of response workflows.
- C. SOAR generates alerts and enables reporting but its main value is automating runbooks, not improving reporting capabilities.
Question 92
An analyst wants to conduct a risk assessment on a new application that is being deployed. Given the following information:
• Total budget allocation for the new application is unavailable.
• Recovery time objectives have not been set
• Downtime loss calculations cannot be provided
Which of the following statements describes the reason a qualitative assessment is the best option?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Sufficient metrics are not available to conduct other risk assessment types
Qualitative risk assessment uses subjective judgment, probability descriptions, and impact scales rather than quantitative metrics. Since the organization lacks critical quantitative data (budget, RTOs, downtime calculations), they cannot perform quantitative or semi-quantitative assessments. Qualitative assessment is the appropriate choice when sufficient numerical metrics are unavailable.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The analyst's development experience is not relevant to the choice between assessment types.
- C. An organizational risk register, while useful, does not provide the specific metrics needed and does not determine the assessment type.
- D. Calculating monetary value of outages requires quantitative assessment, not qualitative assessment.
Question 93
Two companies that recently merged would like to unify application access between the companies, without initially merging internal authentication stores.
Which of the following technical strategies would best meet this objective?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Federation
Federation is the ideal approach for unifying application access between merged companies without immediately merging authentication stores. Federation allows each company to maintain its own authentication system while establishing trust relationships that enable cross-company access. RADIUS and TACACS+ are authentication protocols that don't address federation needs; MFA adds another authentication factor but doesn't solve the unified access problem; ABAC is an authorization model that requires a unified identity source.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. RADIUS is an authentication protocol for network access, not designed for federating authentication between separate organizations.
- C. TACACS+ is primarily for centralized device access control and does not address cross-company application access federation.
- D. MFA adds authentication factors but does not solve the fundamental issue of enabling access without merging authentication stores.
- E. ABAC is an authorization approach requiring knowledge of user attributes, but presupposes identity resolution which federation solves.
Question 94
A security analyst is assessing a new application written in Java. The security analyst must determine which vulnerabilities exist during runtime.
Which of the following would provide the most exhaustive list of vulnerabilities while meeting the objective?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Dynamic analysis
Dynamic analysis executes the application in a runtime environment and observes its behavior, detecting vulnerabilities that only manifest during execution such as memory leaks, race conditions, and runtime errors. This directly addresses the requirement to determine vulnerabilities during runtime and provides an exhaustive list of runtime-specific issues that static analysis cannot detect.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Input validation is a defensive programming technique rather than a vulnerability assessment method.
- C. Side-channel analysis examines information leakage from physical implementation but is not suitable for comprehensive Java application vulnerability assessment.
- D. Fuzz testing is a specific technique for finding input-handling vulnerabilities but is less exhaustive than full dynamic analysis across all runtime scenarios.
- E. Static analysis examines code without execution and cannot detect runtime-specific vulnerabilities or behavioral issues that only appear during execution.
Question 95
While reviewing recent incident reports a security officer discovers that several employees were contacted by the same individual who impersonated a recruiter.
Which of the following best describes this type of correlation?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Attack pattern analysis
Attack pattern analysis involves identifying commonalities across multiple incidents to recognize coordinated campaigns or techniques. When the same individual impersonates a recruiter to contact multiple employees, this represents a recognizable attack pattern that should be analyzed to understand the threat actor's tactics and scope.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. While spear-phishing may be the technique used, the question specifically asks about correlation of incidents, which is attack pattern analysis.
- B. Threat modeling is a proactive process for identifying potential threats to systems, not for analyzing historical incidents.
- C. Red-team assessment is a controlled security exercise, not a method for analyzing discovered incidents.
Question 96
A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or applications in an ad hoc manner.
Which of the following is the best way to reduce the number of failed patch deployments?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Change management
Change management establishes formal processes for controlling modifications to systems and applications, preventing ad hoc changes that create configuration drift and patch deployment failures. By requiring approval and coordination through change management, the organization can ensure patches are applied in a controlled manner without conflicting with undocumented system modifications.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Compliance tracking monitors whether patches are applied but does not prevent ad hoc modifications that cause deployment failures.
- B. Situational awareness involves understanding the current state but does not establish processes to control ad hoc changes.
- D. Quality assurance tests patches but does not address the root cause of ad hoc system modifications causing failures.
Question 97
A developer receives feedback about code quality and efficiency. The developer needs to identify and resolve the following coding issues before submitting the code changes for peer review:
• Indexing beyond arrays
• Dereferencing null pointers
• Potentially dangerous data type combos
• Unreachable code
• Non-portable constructs
Which of the following would be most appropriate for the developer to use in this situation?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Linting
Linting is the appropriate tool for identifying code quality and efficiency issues such as indexing errors, null pointer dereferences, dangerous data type combinations, unreachable code, and non-portable constructs. Linters perform static analysis on source code before execution and are specifically designed to catch these types of coding defects during development, making them ideal for peer review preparation.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) documents dependencies and components but does not analyze code quality.
- C. DAST tests running applications for security vulnerabilities, not static code quality issues before submission.
- D. Branch protection enforces code review policies and access controls but does not identify coding defects.
- E. Software composition analysis identifies vulnerable dependencies but does not detect code logic errors and quality issues.
Question 98
An audit finding reveals that a legacy platform has not retained logs for more than 30 days. The platform has been segmented due to its interoperability with newer technology. As a temporary solution, the IT department changed the log retention to 120 days.
Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure the logs are being properly retained?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs.
Configuring the SIEM to aggregate logs centralizes log collection and ensures they're properly retained beyond the platform's native 120-day limit, providing reliable long-term storage and analysis capabilities. A SIEM offers dedicated log management with retention policies, indexing, and search capabilities that properly address audit requirements. Scheduled tasks (A) and event-based triggers (B) are fragile workarounds dependent on system availability, while a Python script (D) creates maintenance burden and lacks the robustness of dedicated log management infrastructure.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A scheduled nightly task is fragile, depends on the system remaining available, and lacks the reliability of dedicated log management.
- B. Event-based triggers are reactive and unreliable; they don't ensure consistent, comprehensive log retention across the 120-day requirement.
- D. A custom Python script creates technical debt, is difficult to maintain and audit, and lacks the robust features of enterprise log management.
Question 99
An internal user can send encrypted emails successfully to all recipients, except one. at an external organization.
When the internal user attempts to send encrypted emails to this external recipient, a security error message appears. The issue does not affect unencrypted emails. The external recipient can send encrypted emails to internal users.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The external recipient's email address and the email address associated with the external recipient's public key are mismatched.
When encrypting emails, the system uses the recipient's public key certificate to encrypt the message. If the email address in the certificate does not match the recipient's actual email address, the encryption process will fail because the system cannot find or match the correct key. The external recipient can send encrypted emails because their own certificate correctly matches their address, but the internal user's system cannot find the correct certificate for the external recipient due to the address mismatch.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. SSH keys and private key validity dates are not relevant to email encryption issues; email encryption uses X.509 certificates.
- B. An expired key pair would typically trigger a revocation or expiration error, not a generic encryption error; the issue would also affect the external recipient's outbound emails.
- C. OCSP and CRL implementation issues would affect certificate validation globally for both users, not just one direction of communication.
Question 100
During a gap assessment, an organization notes that BYOD usage is a significant risk. The organization implemented administrative policies prohibiting BYOD usage. However, the organization has not implemented technical controls to prevent the unauthorized use of BYOD assets when accessing the organization's resources.
Which of the following solutions should the organization implement to best reduce the risk of BYOD devices? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B, C. Conditional access, to enforce user-to-device binding; NAC, to enforce device configuration requirements
Conditional access policies enforce user-to-device binding, ensuring only approved and compliant devices can access resources, while Network Access Control (NAC) enforces device configuration requirements before granting network access. Together, these technical controls prevent unauthorized BYOD devices from accessing organizational resources. Cloud IAM addresses authentication but not device compliance, PAM controls local passwords rather than device access, SD-WAN filters web content rather than controlling device access, and DLP protects data after access is granted.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Cloud IAM with token-based MFA authenticates users but does not enforce device-level requirements or prevent unauthorized BYOD devices.
- D. PAM enforces password policies on endpoints but does not control which devices can connect to the network.
- E. SD-WAN provides web filtering but does not prevent BYOD devices from connecting or enforce device compliance requirements.
- F. DLP protects data after access is granted but does not prevent unauthorized BYOD devices from connecting in the first place.
Question 101
A security technician is trying to connect a remote site to the central office over a site-to-site VPN. The technician has verified the source and destination IP addresses are correct, but the technician is unable to get the remote site to connect. The following error message keeps repeating:
An error has occurred during Phase 1 handshake. Deleting keys and retrying...
Which of the following is most likely the reason the connection is failing?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. The IKE hashing algorithm uses different key lengths on each VPN device.
A Phase 1 handshake failure in IPSec VPN indicates a mismatch in IKE (Internet Key Exchange) negotiation parameters. The most likely cause is that the IKE hashing algorithm uses different key lengths on each VPN device, preventing the two sides from establishing a common security association. Phase 1 is where IKE parameters must match exactly between peers.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Multiple cipher suites being allowed is typical and does not cause Phase 1 failures; negotiation selects one mutually supported suite.
- C. A matching Diffie-Hellman group, even if legacy, would not cause a handshake failure since both sides agree.
- D. IPSec Phase 1 handshake uses IKE protocol, not SSL/TLS, making this an incorrect parameter to check.
Question 102
An incident response team completed recovery from offline backup for several workstations. The workstations were subjected to a ransomware attack after users fell victim to a spear-phishing campaign, despite a robust training program.
Which of the following questions should be considered during the lessons-learned phase to most likely reduce the risk of reoccurrence? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D, E. What measurable user behaviors were exhibited that contributed to the compromise?; Which technical controls, if implemented, would provide defense when user training fails?
Questions D and E directly address reducing recurrence risk during lessons-learned. Question D focuses on understanding user behaviors that led to compromise, enabling targeted improvements to training and awareness. Question E identifies technical controls that can compensate when training fails, creating defense-in-depth. Questions A and B are post-incident response tasks (notification, legal action) rather than lessons-learned questions. Question C addresses recovery speed rather than preventing reoccurrence. Question F is too broad and doesn't specifically target measurable improvements.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Legal recourse is a post-incident response concern, not a lessons-learned activity focused on risk reduction.
- B. Stakeholder notification is part of incident response, not the lessons-learned phase for preventing reoccurrence.
- C. Recovery speed improves response efficiency but does not address preventing spear-phishing attacks from succeeding.
- F. Identifying target roles is less actionable than understanding specific user behaviors or implementing compensating controls.
Question 103
An incident response team is analyzing malware and observes the following:
• Does not execute in a sandbox
• No network IoCs
• No publicly known hash match
• No process injection method detected
Which of the following should the team do next to proceed with further analysis?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Check for an anti-virtualization code in the sample.
The malware does not execute in a sandbox, suggesting anti-virtualization detection. Checking for anti-virtualization code explains the sandbox evasion and guides the next analytical step. This helps the team understand the malware's defenses and plan appropriate next steps, such as using physical hardware or defeating the anti-VM mechanisms.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Online virus analysis tools use sandboxes that the malware already avoids, making this approach ineffective.
- C. Using a physical machine is a valid approach but does not conduct analysis of the samples' defensive capabilities first.
- D. Searching for a new sample is not productive when the current sample should be analyzed for its anti-virtualization techniques.
Question 104
During an adversarial simulation exercise, an external team was able to gain access to sensitive information and systems without the organization detecting this activity.
Which of the following mitigation strategies should the organization use to best resolve the findings?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Utilizing decoy accounts and documents
Decoy accounts and documents (honeypots at the user/data level) are designed to alert the organization when accessed, providing immediate detection of unauthorized activity. Since the adversarial team went undetected during the exercise, deploying decoy accounts and documents would create detection triggers that expose future intrusions before sensitive systems and data are actually compromised, directly addressing the detection gap revealed by the simulation.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A honeypot for adversary characterization helps analyze attacker behavior but doesn't directly prevent undetected access to real sensitive systems and data.
- B. Leveraging simulators for attackers is a training tool, not a mitigation strategy to improve detection of actual unauthorized access.
- C. A honey network for attackers is a defensive decoy approach, but decoy accounts and documents are more targeted and effective for detecting unauthorized access to sensitive resources.
Question 105
A company is rewriting a vulnerable application and adding the mprotect() system call in multiple parts of the application's code that was being leveraged by a recent exploitation tool.
Which of the following should be enabled to ensure the application can leverage the new system call against similar attacks in the future?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. NX bit
The NX bit (No-Execute bit) is essential for mprotect() to function effectively against exploitation attacks. The mprotect() system call marks memory pages as non-executable or executable, but this protection requires NX bit hardware support to actually prevent code execution in non-executable regions. This defends against buffer overflow and code injection attacks. TPM is a security module unrelated to memory protection; secure boot validates firmware but not application memory; HSM manages cryptographic keys, not application memory execution.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. TPM (Trusted Platform Module) manages cryptographic keys and attestation, not application memory protection.
- B. Secure boot validates firmware integrity during startup but does not enable runtime memory execution controls.
- D. HSM (Hardware Security Module) protects cryptographic keys but is unrelated to memory execution protection.
Question 106
An organization recently migrated data to a new file management system. The architect decides to use a discretionary authorization model on the new system.
Which of the following best explains the architect’s choice?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The permissions were not able to be migrated to the new system, and several stakeholders were made responsible for granting appropriate access.
Discretionary Access Control (DAC) places responsibility for permission management on individual data owners and stakeholders. When permissions cannot be automatically migrated to the new system, stakeholders must manually grant appropriate access, which is a defining characteristic of DAC. This explains why the architect chose this model.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Outsourcing data migration to the vendor does not explain the choice of discretionary authorization.
- C. Legacy authentication limitations affect authentication mechanisms, not the authorization model selection.
- D. Backup maintenance responsibilities by selected custodians are unrelated to the authorization model choice.
Question 107
A company runs a DAST scan on a web application. The tool outputs the following recommendations:
• Use Cookie prefixes.
• Content Security Policy - SameSite=strict is not set.
Which of the following vulnerabilities has the tool identified?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. CSRF
Cookie prefixes and SameSite=strict settings are both defense mechanisms specifically designed to prevent Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attacks. These recommendations address the failure to implement CSRF protections by ensuring cookies cannot be accessed cross-site and requests cannot be initiated from malicious external sites.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. RCE (Remote Code Execution) is not prevented by cookie or SameSite controls.
- B. XSS (Cross-Site Scripting) is mitigated by Content Security Policy but not by cookie prefixes and SameSite settings, which target cross-origin requests.
- D. TOCTOU (Time-of-Check-Time-of-Use) is a race condition vulnerability unrelated to cookie or header-based protections.
Question 108
A retail organization wants to properly test and verify its capabilities to detect and/or prevent specific TTPs as mapped to the MITRE ATTACK framework specific to APTs.
Which of the following should be used by the organization to accomplish this goal?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Penetration test
A penetration test is the appropriate method to test and verify detection and prevention capabilities against specific TTPs mapped to the MITRE ATT&CK framework. It involves controlled, adversarial simulation that validates the organization's ability to detect and respond to the tactics, techniques, and procedures of APTs.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based scenario that tests decision-making and procedures but does not actively test technical detection and prevention capabilities.
- C. Sandbox detonation is used to safely execute and analyze malware samples, not to test detection of specific TTPs across the organization.
- D. A honeypot is a decoy system designed to attract attackers but is primarily for detection and threat intelligence gathering, not for systematically testing response capabilities against specific TTPs.
Question 109
A manufacturing plant is updating its IT services. During discussions, the senior management team created the following list of considerations:
• Staff turnover is high and seasonal.
• Extreme conditions often damage endpoints.
• Losses from downtime must be minimized.
• Regulatory data retention requirements exist.
Which of the following best addresses the considerations?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Using a non-persistent virtual desktop interface with thin clients
Non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructure with thin clients best addresses all considerations: high staff turnover is handled by stateless sessions requiring no individual configuration retention; extreme conditions cause minimal endpoint damage since thin clients lack hard drives and are rugged; downtime is minimized through centralized management and rapid redeployment; and regulatory data retention is simplified by centralizing data on secure servers rather than storing it on individual endpoints. Environmental controls alone don't address turnover. Redundant servers address availability but not endpoint durability or turnover efficiency. Spare endpoint inventory requires ongoing management of individual machines.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Environmental controls reduce equipment damage but do not address staff turnover, rapid deployment needs, or data centralization requirements.
- C. Redundant servers and database journaling address data availability but do not mitigate endpoint damage, turnover issues, or rapid redeployment needs.
- D. Spare endpoint inventory requires management overhead and does not address the efficiency needs created by high turnover or the data retention requirements.
Question 110
A game developer wants to reach new markets and is advised by legal counsel to include specific age-related sign-up requirements.
Which of the following best describes the legal counsel's concerns?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. COPPA
COPPA (Children's Online Privacy Protection Act) is the primary U.S. federal law specifically regulating age-related sign-up requirements and privacy protections for online services targeting children under 13. It requires verifiable parental consent and age-appropriate privacy safeguards, directly addressing legal counsel's concern about age-related sign-up requirements for a game targeting new markets that may include minors.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. GDPR applies to EU residents but doesn't specifically mandate age-related sign-up requirements as a core compliance mechanism.
- B. LGPD is Brazil's privacy law but is not the primary regulation for age-gated sign-up requirements.
- C. PCI DSS addresses payment card security, not age verification or child privacy protections.
Question 111
A company hired a third-party consultant to run a cybersecurity incident simulation in order to identify security gaps and prepare stakeholders for a potential incident.
Which of the following best describes this activity?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Tabletop exercise
A tabletop exercise is an interactive simulation where participants discuss their roles and responsibilities during a hypothetical security incident scenario. It is specifically designed to identify security gaps, test incident response procedures, and prepare stakeholders for potential incidents without deploying actual technical simulations, making it the best fit for the described consultant-led cybersecurity simulation.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. A walk-through review is a more passive, document-focused examination of procedures rather than an interactive simulation exercise.
- C. Lessons learned is a post-incident activity conducted after an actual incident to review what happened, not a preparatory simulation exercise.
- D. Business impact analysis assesses potential financial and operational consequences of incidents, not a simulation to identify security gaps.
Question 112
A company wants to protect against the most common attacks and rapidly integrate with different programming languages.
Which of the following technologies is most likely to meet this need?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. RASP
RASP (Runtime Application Self-Protection) protects against common attacks at runtime within the application itself and can be integrated directly into applications regardless of programming language. RASP provides language-agnostic protection by instrumenting the application runtime environment, making it ideal for protecting against common attacks while supporting rapid integration across different programming languages without requiring language-specific implementations.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Cloud-based IDEs are development environments, not security protection technologies against attacks.
- C. DAST identifies vulnerabilities through testing but is not a runtime protection mechanism and occurs after development.
- D. NIPS (Network Intrusion Prevention System) provides network-level protection but cannot rapidly integrate with different programming languages at the application level.
Question 113
An organization is concerned about insider threats from employees who have individual access to encrypted material.
Which of the following techniques best addresses this issue?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: E. Key splitting
Key splitting divides encryption keys among multiple parties, ensuring no single employee can access encrypted material alone. This directly addresses insider threats by requiring collusion or multiple approvals to decrypt sensitive data. SSO/MFA improve authentication but don't prevent access once authenticated. Salting/hashing protect passwords, not encrypted data. Account federation and hardware tokens enhance authentication without addressing the core issue of individual access to encrypted material.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. SSO with MFA improves authentication but does not prevent an authenticated user from accessing encrypted material.
- B. Salting and hashing protect password storage, not access to encrypted material.
- C. Account federation with hardware tokens strengthens authentication but still allows individual access to decrypt encrypted data.
- D. SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals) is a wireless security protocol and does not address insider threats to encrypted data access.
Question 114
A development team must create a website to share indicators of compromise. The team wants to use APIs between industry peers to aid in configuring SIEM and SOAR. The team needs to create a free tier of service, and the senior developer insists on configuring rate limiting.
Which of the following best describes the senior developer's reasoning?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. To limit the likelihood of resource exhaustion occurring on the API server
Rate limiting prevents resource exhaustion on the API server by restricting the number of requests a client can make within a time window. This is especially important for a free tier service where clients might intentionally or unintentionally overwhelm the server with excessive requests, protecting availability for all users.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Rate limiting does not specifically prevent password-spraying attacks; authentication mechanisms address that.
- C. While rate limiting can manage bandwidth, the primary security benefit is preventing resource exhaustion rather than bandwidth management.
- D. Rate limiting does not reduce attack surface exposure; it manages request volume on existing endpoints.
Question 115
A user tried to access a web page at http://10.1.11. Previously the web page did not require authentication, and now the browser is prompting for credentials.
Which of the following actions would best prevent the issue from reoccurring and reduce the likelihood of credential exposure?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Modifying web server configuration and utilizing X509 certificates for authentication
The scenario describes an HTTP endpoint (unencrypted) that previously had no authentication but now prompts for credentials. An attacker could intercept these credentials in transit over HTTP. Transitioning to HTTPS with X.509 certificates for authentication ensures credentials are encrypted during transmission, preventing credential exposure even if an attacker intercepts the connection. This directly addresses both preventing the issue and reducing credential exposure risk.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. 802.1x EAP-TTLS addresses wireless authentication but does not protect credentials sent over unencrypted HTTP to a web server.
- B. DNS security (DNSSEC) protects against DNS spoofing but does not encrypt credentials transmitted over HTTP.
- D. IDS rules detect attacks but do not prevent credential exposure; they are reactive rather than preventive.
Question 116
Which of the following is the reason why security engineers often cannot upgrade the security of embedded facility automation systems?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. They are constrained by available compute.
Embedded facility automation systems are constrained by available compute resources, they typically have limited CPU, memory, and storage to run security software, apply patches, or implement modern cryptographic controls. This hardware limitation is the fundamental reason preventing security upgrades, regardless of processor architecture or device capabilities.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Modern embedded systems may not use x86-64 processors, but they often have alternative architectures (ARM, etc.) that can support security upgrades; the issue is compute capacity, not processor type.
- C. EEPROM availability is not the limiting factor; most embedded devices have some form of persistent storage.
- D. Facility automation systems are definitely logic-bearing devices that execute code; this statement is factually incorrect.
Question 117
Which of the following AI concerns is most adequately addressed by input sanitization?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Prompt injection
Prompt injection attacks exploit unsanitized user inputs that are passed directly into AI model prompts, allowing attackers to manipulate model behavior. Input sanitization directly mitigates this by validating and cleaning user inputs before they reach the prompt processing layer, preventing malicious instructions from being injected into the AI system.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Model inversion attacks extract training data by analyzing model outputs; input sanitization doesn't address this architectural vulnerability.
- C. Data poisoning occurs during model training through malicious training data; input sanitization at inference time doesn't prevent poisoned models.
- D. Non-explainable model behavior is a transparency and interpretability issue; input sanitization doesn't address model explainability.
Question 118
A security researcher tells a company that one of its solutions is vulnerable to buffer overflow, leading to a malicious coding execution.
Which of the following is the best way to avoid this vulnerability in future versions?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Using SAST tools to find vulnerabilities as part of the pipeline
SAST (Static Application Security Testing) tools analyze source code during development to identify vulnerabilities such as buffer overflows before they reach production. Integrating SAST into the development pipeline catches these issues early in the lifecycle when they are cheapest and easiest to fix.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) testing addresses a different class of vulnerability and does not prevent buffer overflow attacks.
- C. Canary protection is a runtime mitigation technique for buffer overflows, not a prevention method during development, and implementing it in an earlier stage does not prevent the vulnerability from being written.
- D. Pair programming may improve code quality generally but is not a specific or reliable mechanism for preventing known vulnerabilities like buffer overflows compared to automated tooling.
Question 119
An organization determined its preparedness for a ransomware attack is inadequate. A security administrator is working on ways to improve and monitor the organization's response to ransomware attacks.
Which of the following is the best action for the administrator to take?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Conduct backup testing.
Conducting backup testing directly measures and improves the organization's ability to recover from ransomware attacks by verifying that backups are restorable and functional. This provides concrete evidence of preparedness and identifies gaps in the recovery process before an actual attack occurs, making it the most actionable step to improve and monitor ransomware response capability.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Defining recovery point objective (RPO) establishes a target but does not verify the ability to actually meet it or test response effectiveness.
- C. Performing a business impact analysis identifies critical systems but does not directly improve or monitor the technical recovery capability.
- D. Verifying encryption key length strengthens data protection but is unrelated to ransomware attack response and recovery preparedness.
Question 120
A company implemented a new NAC solution based on 802.1X. However, the IT support team notices that some devices are not being enrolled in the new policies, causing access disruptions for key users.
Which of the following solutions will most likely solve this issue and prevent reoccurrence?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Include the monitoring agent and digital certificate as part of the patching/updating program, keeping all the corporate devices updated and enrolled.
The core issue is devices not being enrolled in 802.1X policies. Option A addresses this systematically by ensuring the monitoring agent and digital certificate are included in regular patching/updating cycles, which maintains continuous enrollment across all corporate devices. This prevents the recurrence of enrollment gaps by making agent and certificate deployment an ongoing operational process rather than a one-time event. The other options either address symptoms (manual intervention, checking individual devices) or introduce security risks (default credentials).
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Manual certificate verification and deployment to each device is not scalable and does not prevent future enrollment issues.
- C. Manually enrolling devices via the agent is reactive, addresses only current problems, and does not prevent future non-enrollment.
- D. Default credentials for RADIUS authentication violates security principles and creates authentication vulnerabilities regardless of device enrollment status.
That was 120 of 482.
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