46 free ServiceNow CIS-SPM practice questions from the CertStash pack of 182, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. The rule is the same for every exam: ten free on the product page, 46 free here, all 182 in the pack, and each step includes the one before it.
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Question 1
Which property controls the changes in cost and resource plans with respect to the change in the start date of a demand or project?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. ‘Change Resource Plan, Cost Plan and Benefit Plan Start Date with Demand or Project Start Date Change’.
The 'Change Resource Plan, Cost Plan and Benefit Plan Start Date with Demand or Project Start Date Change' property is installed with Project Management and governs whether the associated plans move when the start date of a demand or project changes. When it is enabled and the start date shifts, the resource plans, cost plans and benefit plans are shifted by the same interval, so the planned costs and allocations stay aligned with the new schedule instead of remaining tied to the original dates.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. This property controls whether planned dates can be altered on tasks that are already in Work in Progress or Closed, not how cost and resource plans follow a start date change.
- C. This property makes the project start date roll up from its tasks; it does not move cost or resource plans.
- D. This property governs how return on investment is calculated from estimated cost and net value, which is unrelated to plan dates.
Question 2
Which statement defines the Project Workspace?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. A central location for creating and managing projects
Project Workspace is the central location where project managers create and manage their projects. From its landing page a project manager can start new projects, open existing ones and work on planning, resources, financials, status reporting and other execution details in a single workspace experience. It is focused on delivering individual projects rather than on evaluating incoming demand or prioritizing an entire portfolio, which are handled by other Strategic Portfolio Management tools.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Viewing and prioritizing all projects across a portfolio is the purpose of portfolio planning tools, not Project Workspace.
- C. Viewing and assessing business demands is the role of Demand Management and the demand workbench.
- D. Project Workspace is defined by project creation and management, not by a general change to how lists and forms are navigated.
Question 3
If a sub-project and parent project have different project currencies, this property should be set to true for cost roll-ups.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. com.snc.project.multicurrency.rollup_if_different
The com.snc.project.multicurrency.rollup_if_different property determines whether costs roll up from a sub-project to its parent when the two projects use different project currencies. Setting it to true allows the sub-project costs to be converted and rolled up into the parent project, so the parent reflects the full financial picture even though the child records its costs in another currency. When it is false, costs from a sub-project in a different currency are not rolled up.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This property rolls the project start date up from its tasks and has nothing to do with currency or cost roll-ups.
- B. This property controls the calculation of return on investment, not cost roll-ups between projects in different currencies.
- D. This property lists additional attributes to copy when a project is copied, which is unrelated to cost roll-ups.
Question 4
When can a user choose from multiple rate types for their work, while logging a time card?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Only if the capability is enabled in the Time Sheet Policies
Time Sheet Policies define how time cards behave for the users they apply to, including whether rate types are used. When a time sheet policy enables multiple rate types, users covered by that policy can choose a rate type, such as standard time or overtime, for each time card they log. Because the capability is set on the policy, it applies consistently to every user assigned to that policy rather than being configured on individual projects.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Rate type selection for time cards is not enabled on the individual project record.
- B. Multiple rate types can be used once the time sheet policy allows it, so users are not limited to a single rate type.
- D. Project Preferences configure project behavior, not how rate types are offered on time cards.
Question 5
If Scenario Planning for PPM is installed, a portfolio manager can access the Portfolio Planning Workbench by navigating to which of the following? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B, D. Portfolio Planning Workbench module; Portfolio Planning related link
With Scenario Planning for PPM installed, a portfolio manager has two ways to reach the Portfolio Planning Workbench. The Portfolio Planning Workbench module in the application navigator opens the workbench directly, after which the manager selects the portfolio to plan. Alternatively, the Portfolio Planning related link on a portfolio record opens the workbench already scoped to that portfolio. Both routes lead to the same workbench for building and comparing portfolio plans.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The Project module lists and manages projects and does not open the Portfolio Planning Workbench.
- C. The Program Workbench is a separate tool for programs and is not an entry point to the Portfolio Planning Workbench.
Question 6
What is the first step in the process when configuring Portfolio Planning to work with ServiceNow® Project Portfolio Management?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Create an alignment integration.
Configuring Portfolio Planning to work with Project Portfolio Management starts with creating an alignment integration, which connects Portfolio Planning to the PPM data source. Once the integration exists, the administrator generates the default mapping configurations and then creates any custom mapping configurations that are needed. Personalized portfolio plans are built by users only after this configuration is complete, so the integration is the required first step.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Default mapping configurations are generated after the alignment integration has been created, so this is the second step.
- C. Portfolio plans are created by users once the integration and mappings are already configured.
- D. Custom mapping configurations come after the integration and the default mappings are in place.
Question 7
Which role should be assigned to a user so they can read and retrieve data from any table of the Release Management application to generate reports?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Business stakeholder
The business stakeholder role is designed for users who need read access to Release Management data for reporting. Activating the Business Stakeholder plugin also activates the Read only roles for Release Management plugin, which provides the business stakeholder role (sn_release_read). A user with this role can read and retrieve data from any table of the Release Management application to generate reports, without receiving the ability to create or modify release records.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The project manager role is for managing projects and does not provide read access across all Release Management tables.
- B. A release administrator role grants administrative rights, which goes well beyond the read-only reporting access described.
- D. The release user role is for working with release records, not the dedicated read-only reporting access across every Release Management table.
Question 8
Which plugin activates the Ideas module to gather and evaluate ideas efficiently, and quickly identify ideas for implementation?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Ideation with PPM
The Ideation with PPM plugin (com.snc.ppm_innovation_management) activates the Ideas module. It lets an organization collect new ideas, collaborate on them, evaluate them efficiently and quickly identify the ones worth implementing. Selected ideas can then be converted into demands, projects, epics or stories, which connects idea management directly to the rest of Strategic Portfolio Management.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Agile Development 2.0 provides agile planning and delivery features such as backlogs and sprints, not the Ideas module.
- C. Resource Management handles resource plans, capacity and allocations, not idea collection and evaluation.
- D. Test Management 2.0 manages test plans and test execution and does not provide the Ideas module.
Question 9
In order to map custom fields from Microsoft Project to ServiceNow when importing a project, you must first:
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Create custom fields in your ServiceNow instance
Custom fields from Microsoft Project can only be mapped to fields that already exist in ServiceNow. For that reason, the custom fields must first be created in the ServiceNow instance. After they exist, they can be mapped to the corresponding Microsoft Project fields, and the mapping must be in place before the project is imported so that the custom field values are brought across during the import.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Saving the project in XML format prepares the file for import but does not provide the ServiceNow fields that custom Microsoft Project fields need to map to.
- C. Configuring the Project form changes its layout but does not create the target fields required for mapping.
- D. The mapping must be defined before the project is imported, so importing first is the wrong order.
Question 10
Can an it_project_manager convert a task to a milestone?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Yes, by right-clicking on the task in the Planning Console.
A user with the it_project_manager role can convert a project task into a milestone. In the Planning Console, right-clicking the task opens a context menu that includes the option to convert it to a milestone. No administrator or additional PPS admin role is needed, and the task does not have to be assigned to the project manager for the conversion to be available.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Converting a task to a milestone is available to project managers, not reserved for system administrators.
- C. The it_project_manager role is sufficient on its own, so the PPS admin role is not required.
- D. The option does not depend on who the task is assigned to.
Question 11
Which related lists should primarily be used to capture financial data in a project? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B, C. Cost Plans; Monetary Benefit Plans
Financial data on a project is captured primarily in the Cost Plans and Monetary Benefit Plans related lists. Cost plans record the expected costs of the project by cost type and fiscal period, while monetary benefit plans record the financial benefits the project is expected to deliver. Together they support budget tracking and the calculation of financial measures such as net present value and return on investment.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The Programs related list shows program grouping, not financial data.
- D. The Risks related list records project risks rather than financial data.
Question 12
A user's availability is calculated as:
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Capacity minus allocation
In Resource Management, availability is the time a resource still has free after both hard and soft allocations are taken into account. It is calculated as capacity minus allocation, so a resource with 160 hours of capacity and 120 allocated hours has 40 hours of availability. Resource managers use this figure to see who can take on additional work before confirming or allocating new resource plans.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Allocated hours divided by capacity is a utilization measure, not availability.
- B. Allocated time is the work already committed, which is the opposite of availability.
- C. Dividing allocated and confirmed hours by capacity produces a utilization percentage, not availability.
Question 13
A customer requires five (5) teamspaces to support different departments. What should you do?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Contact the Account Representative to activate the teamspaces.
Teamspaces are delivered as individual plugins, and only a limited number of them are available to an instance. A customer who needs five separate teamspaces for different departments should contact their ServiceNow Account Representative, who arranges for the required teamspace plugins to be provisioned and activated on the instance. Each department then gets its own teamspace with separated project portfolio data.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Self-activating plugins cannot deliver the required number of teamspaces without ServiceNow provisioning them first.
- C. UI policies and business rules cannot create or enable teamspaces.
- D. Teamspaces are delivered as plugins and are not enabled by a system property.
Question 14
When a user's schedule changes, what action needs to be taken to update their existing data?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Update capacity via ‘Update Resource Capacity’
A user's capacity is calculated from their schedule and stored in the resource aggregate records. When the schedule changes, the existing aggregate data is not rebuilt automatically, so the Update Resource Capacity action must be run for the affected user to recalculate capacity from the new schedule. After it runs, availability and utilization views reflect the changed working hours.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Editing a calendar manually does not recalculate the stored capacity records.
- B. Project plans do not hold resource capacity, so updating them has no effect on it.
- C. Existing capacity data is not recalculated on its own after a schedule change.
Question 15
When copying a source project to a target project, what fields are copied by default? (Choose three.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, C, D. Planned dates; Short description; Duration fields.
When a source project is copied to a target project, only a small set of fields is copied by default: the short description, the planned dates and the duration fields. This gives the new project the same structure and schedule shape as the source. If additional columns must be copied, they are declared in the project property that lists the attributes to copy from the originating project task.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. The target project receives its own new number, so the number is not copied.
- E. State is not copied; the new project starts in its own initial state.
Question 16
What is a resource event?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. A block of time that a resource spends on a task.
A resource event is a block of time that a resource spends on a task. Resource events appear on the resource's calendar and show when the person is scheduled to work on specific tasks, giving resource managers and the resource a clear view of how their allocated time is being used across projects and other work.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A non-scheduled activity impacting capacity describes time off or similar capacity adjustments, not a resource event.
- C. A resource event is time a resource spends on a task, not an event external to the resource's work.
- D. A resource event is not defined as something scheduled by a project manager.
Question 17
The color band at the top of the project card in Project Workspace displays what project attribute?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Status
Each project card in Project Workspace has a color band at the top, and the color of that band is based on the Status field of the project record. Status reflects the overall health of the project as green, yellow or red, so a project manager can see at a glance which projects are on track and which need attention before opening the project itself.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Issues are tracked in their own related records and do not set the color of the card band.
- C. Risk is recorded separately on the project and is not what the band color represents.
- D. State describes the lifecycle stage, such as Pending or Work in Progress, not the health shown by the band color.
Question 18
What are the allocation types available under the Allocation Config tab on a resource plan? (Choose three.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, B, E. Plan duration; Weekly; Monthly
The Allocation Config tab on a resource plan contains the Allocation type field, which determines the allocation records the plan creates. Weekly creates week-long allocations up to the planned end date, Monthly creates month-long allocations and is the default, and Plan duration creates a single allocation for each user covering the entire resource plan. The same tab also holds Allocation spread, which controls how hours are distributed across working days.
Why the other options are wrong
- C. Daily is not an allocation type; distribution of hours across days is controlled by the allocation spread.
- D. Yearly is not an allocation type choice on the resource plan.
Question 19
The overall health of a program rolls up from the latest status report of each project in the program. The status is indicated by which colors? (Choose three.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, B, D. Yellow; Red; Green
Program health rolls up from the latest status report of each project in the program. Status reports use the standard health colors of green for on track, yellow for at risk and red for off track, and the program's overall health reflects these values across its projects so the program manager can see where attention is needed.
Why the other options are wrong
- C. Orange is not one of the health colors used in project status reports.
Question 20
Depending on the execution type selected for a particular project, one of these dashboards will also be available:
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Project Summary - Waterfall Dashboard
The execution type selected on a project determines which project summary dashboard is available alongside the standard project views. For a project that uses the waterfall execution type, the Project Summary - Waterfall Dashboard presents the schedule, progress and key indicators suited to a phase-based plan. This dashboard is offered only when the waterfall execution type applies, which is why its availability depends on the project's execution type.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A User Manager Dashboard is not tied to the execution type chosen for a project.
- B. Time card dashboards relate to time reporting, not to the execution type of a project.
- C. A PMO Dashboard gives a portfolio-wide view and does not depend on the execution type of an individual project.
Question 21
When working with demands, which field must be set to "Yes" in order for a user to receive an assessment?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Assessment recipient.
Assessments for a demand are sent to the stakeholders whose Assessment recipient field is set to Yes. When the demand enters screening, each stakeholder flagged this way receives the demand assessment, and their answers are scored to produce the demand's metrics. Stakeholders without the flag remain associated with the demand but do not receive assessments.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The Approver field controls whether the stakeholder approves the demand, not whether they receive an assessment.
- B. Level of Interest describes the stakeholder's engagement and does not trigger assessments.
- D. Influence describes the stakeholder's weight in decisions and does not trigger assessments.
Question 22
The combination of the user and the assigned portfolio must be unique when adding a user to which registry?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Stakeholder Registry.
When a user is added to the stakeholder registry, the combination of the user and the assigned portfolio must be unique. The same user can appear in several registry records, but each one must be for a different portfolio. This prevents duplicate stakeholder entries for the same portfolio while still allowing one person to act as a stakeholder across multiple portfolios.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. An application registry does not assign users to portfolios.
- C. The UX Page Registry defines pages for UI Builder experiences and has no user and portfolio combination.
- D. The Event Registry defines system events and does not hold user and portfolio assignments.
Question 23
A program is a container for the following except for:
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Portfolios
A program groups related projects and demands and serves as a container for program tasks, milestones, risks, issues and cost plans, including those aggregated from its projects and demands. Portfolios sit above programs in the hierarchy: a portfolio can contain programs, but a program does not contain portfolios. This makes portfolios the only item listed that a program cannot hold.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Program tasks are created directly within a program to track program-level work.
- B. Issues are tracked at the program level and also aggregated from its projects and demands.
- C. Cost plans are held by the program and rolled up from its projects and demands.
Question 24
Is resource capacity derived from FTE or schedules?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Only Schedules.
Resource capacity is derived only from schedules. Resource Management reads the working hours defined in the user's schedule, taking holidays and time off into account, to compute daily capacity, which is stored in the resource aggregate tables. FTE is a unit for requesting and displaying effort, and it is converted to hours using the schedule rather than serving as a source of capacity itself.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Capacity does have a source: the working hours defined in the user's schedule.
- C. FTE is a unit for requesting and viewing effort and is converted using schedule hours, not a source of capacity.
- D. FTE does not contribute to capacity; only schedules define it.
Question 25
What is the demand workbench used for? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B, C. Approving demands; Comparing and prioritizing demands against other demands
The demand workbench lets demand managers evaluate demands side by side. It plots demands on a bubble chart by factors such as value, risk and size, so they can be compared and prioritized against other demands. From the workbench the demand manager can also act on the results, including approving demands, which moves the chosen work forward toward delivery.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Ideas are reviewed and approved in Idea Management, not in the demand workbench.
- D. The workbench compares demands with other demands, not demands with portfolios.
Question 26
What features are not included in a teamspace application but can be added in teamspace settings? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, C. Workbench configuration; Demand Assessments
A teamspace is created with its own copy of the core Project Portfolio Management modules, such as Project, Demand, Idea, Program and Portfolio, so each team works with separated data. Features that are not part of the default teamspace application can be switched on afterwards through teamspace settings. Workbench configuration and Demand Assessments are two such features, which lets each teamspace add workbench views and demand assessment capability only when the team needs them.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Idea is one of the core modules already included in every teamspace application.
- D. Project is one of the core modules already included in every teamspace application.
Question 27
Which users have access to the project administration application? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, D. admin; it_pps_admin
The Project Administration application is where project properties, preferences, templates and related configuration are maintained. Access to it is limited to administrators: users with the platform admin role and users with it_pps_admin, the administrative role for the Project Portfolio Suite. Managers who run portfolios or projects day to day do not receive this configuration access.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. The it_portfolio_manager role manages portfolios and their planning, not the project administration configuration.
- C. The it_project_manager role manages individual projects but does not grant access to project administration.
Question 28
Where is planned cost calculated from when requesting resources from a group and when resource role is specified?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. The hourly rate of the specified role.
When resources are requested from a group and a resource role is specified on the resource plan, the planned cost is calculated from the hourly rate of the specified role. The requested hours are multiplied by that role rate to estimate the cost of the plan. Once the plan is confirmed or allocated, planned cost rolls up from the resource allocations for the actual people assigned.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Task rate cards are not the basis for planned cost when a role is specified on a group request.
- B. Distribution costs are not used to calculate the planned cost of a resource plan.
- D. CI rate cards apply to configuration item costs, not to the planned cost of a resource request by role.
Question 29
Use this table to configure the parameters displayed on a project card on the My Projects Space page of the Project Workspace.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. pm_home_page_config
The parameters shown on a project card on the My Projects Space page of Project Workspace are configured in the pm_home_page_config table. Records in this table determine which project attributes appear on each card, so administrators can tailor the information project managers see at a glance on their landing page without changing the underlying project records.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. pm_toplevel_project relates to top-level projects and does not configure project card parameters.
- B. project_template_config stores project template configuration, not the fields displayed on project cards.
- D. pm_project stores the project records themselves, not the configuration of how cards display them.
Question 30
As a demand manager, you can view an artifact from a demand. What artifacts are part of a demand?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Decision, Risk, Requirements.
A demand record carries its own supporting artifacts, which a demand manager views from the related lists on the demand form. Decisions, risks and requirements are captured against the demand during screening and qualification, giving stakeholders the information they need to evaluate it. These artifacts stay part of the demand and help justify whether it should move forward into delivery.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Stories, vulnerability tasks and enhancements are not the set of artifacts recorded as part of a demand.
- B. Projects and defects are records a demand can be converted into, and requests are not demand artifacts, so this set does not describe what is part of a demand.
- C. Incidents, problems and changes are IT service management records, not artifacts that make up a demand.
Question 31
Which is the minimum role that has access to the Project Administration > Settings > Preferences-Project module?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. it_pps_admin
The Project Administration > Settings > Preferences-Project module holds application-wide project preferences, so it is restricted to the project administration role. The it_pps_admin role is the minimum role that grants access to this module. Project and program managers work with individual projects and programs, while the full admin role grants far more than the minimum access needed.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. it_project_manager manages individual projects and does not have access to the project administration settings.
- C. it_program_manager manages programs and does not have access to the project administration settings.
- D. A system administrator has access, but it is not the minimum role that grants it.
Question 32
Which role can configure the parameters of the demand workbench that is provided with the base system?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. it_pps_admin.
The demand workbench provided with the base system can be configured by a user with the it_pps_admin role. This role administers the project and portfolio suite, and configuring the workbench parameters, such as the fields plotted on the bubble chart and the values used to size and position demands, changes how demands are displayed for every demand manager. Keeping this configuration with the administrator role ensures the workbench stays consistent across the organization.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. it_project_manager manages projects and does not configure the parameters of the demand workbench.
- C. Configuring the demand workbench is restricted to the administrator role, not open to every role.
- D. business_stakeholder is a read-oriented role and cannot configure the demand workbench.
Question 33
Risks and issues submitted in which forms will be included in the Program record? (Choose three.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, B, E. program; project; demand
A program gives a consolidated view of everything that threatens its delivery. It includes risks and issues logged directly on the program record as well as those submitted on the projects and demands that belong to the program. Aggregating them in one place lets the program manager see and act on problems across all of the program's work.
Why the other options are wrong
- C. Ideas are not members of a program, so their records do not roll up to it.
- D. A portfolio sits above the program, so its risks and issues do not roll up into the program record.
Question 34
How many WBS levels can be shown on the planning console?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. No Limit.
The planning console displays the full work breakdown structure of a project with no fixed limit on the number of levels. Phases, tasks and child tasks at any depth appear in the Gantt view and can be expanded or collapsed, so project managers can model and view as detailed a hierarchy as the project requires.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The planning console is not restricted to a single level of the work breakdown structure.
- B. The planning console does not cap the work breakdown structure at two levels.
- C. The planning console does not cap the work breakdown structure at three levels.
Question 35
What is the formula used to calculate the risk rank for a risk?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. probability * impact
Project risks are assessed on two dimensions: how likely the risk is to occur and how severe its effect would be. The risk rank is calculated by multiplying probability by impact, so risks that are both likely and damaging rank highest. This lets project managers prioritize mitigation effort on the risks that matter most.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Urgency combined with impact is how task priority is looked up in IT Service Management, not how risk rank is calculated.
- B. Priority is not an input to the risk rank calculation.
- D. Priority is not an input to the risk rank calculation; probability is.
Question 36
Which of the following defines a parent-child relationship? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C, D. Any number of child tasks can be nested under a parent task with or without any dependencies; A parent-child relationship is not saved as a record in any table.
A parent-child relationship nests tasks in the work breakdown structure: any number of child tasks can sit under a parent task, with or without dependencies between them. Unlike a dependency, a parent-child relationship is not saved as a record in any table. The only change made is to the Parent field on the child task record, which holds the parent task or the project itself.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Requiring one task to finish before another begins describes a dependency, not a parent-child relationship.
- B. A parent task's dates and duration roll up from its children, so the relationship does affect task timing.
Question 37
Which artifacts can be linked to either a program, a portfolio, both, or neither? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, C. Demands; Projects
Demands and projects are the planning artifacts that can be linked flexibly to programs and portfolios. Each can belong to a program, to a portfolio, to both, or to neither, depending on how the organization groups its work. This flexibility lets portfolio and program managers roll up demands and projects for planning and reporting while still allowing standalone work that is not grouped at all.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Stories belong to agile backlogs and epics and are not linked directly to programs and portfolios in this way.
- D. Test cases belong to test management and are not linked to programs or portfolios.
- E. Operational plans are not the artifacts that link to a program, a portfolio, both or neither.
Question 38
Which demand category would a demand manager select, if they need to create an enhancement?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Strategic
The Category field on a demand determines which values are available in the Type field and therefore which artifact the demand can become. A strategic demand supports the organization's goals and can be converted into a project, enhancement, epic or story. An operational demand supports keeping existing services running and is converted into a change or defect. To create an enhancement, the demand manager therefore selects the Strategic category.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Defect is a demand type used with the operational category, not a category that produces an enhancement.
- B. The Operational category leads to changes or defects, not enhancements.
- C. Change is a demand type under the operational category, not a category that produces an enhancement.
Question 39
What role is required to view the Details tab of a project in Project Workspace?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. it_project_user
The Details tab in Project Workspace displays the project form for the selected project, and the role required to open and work with it is it_project_user. A user with this role can open a project in Project Workspace, select the Details tab to see the project record, and edit it as their permissions allow. This makes the Details tab available to the wider project team rather than only to project managers.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A separate workspace user role is not what the Details tab requires; access is governed by it_project_user.
- B. The it_project_manager role grants broader project management rights and is not the role the Details tab requires.
- D. The it_project role is not the role that grants access to the Details tab.
Question 40
What are the default project template configuration records available in the Template Config module? (Choose three.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B, C, D. Project subtask; Project; Project task
The Template Config module controls which fields are captured when a project template is created from a project and applied back to new projects. By default it contains configuration records for Project, Project task and Project subtask, one for each level of the project hierarchy that a template reproduces. Administrators can edit these records to add or remove the fields that are copied into and out of project templates.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Project template is the output that these configuration records govern, not one of the default configuration records.
- E. A generic Task record is not one of the default template configuration records.
Question 41
If a lens has four entities, which entity within the lens structure would not have a parent reference?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Top-level entity
In a lens structure, each entity except the top one references a parent entity that sits one level above it. The Parent entity field is available only when the Top entity option is not selected, so the top-level entity has no parent reference. In a four-entity lens, the second, third and bottom entities each point to the level above them, while the top-level entity forms the root of the structure.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The second-level entity references the top-level entity as its parent.
- B. The bottom entity references the entity above it as its parent.
- D. The third-level entity references the second-level entity as its parent.
Question 42
What is a data copy of the current project's task, schedule, or structure that can be used for comparison reporting later?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Baseline
A baseline is a snapshot of a project's tasks, schedule and structure captured at a particular moment. Project managers create baselines at various stages, such as the end of each phase, and later compare them with the current plan. The baseline variance shows how far planned dates have moved, which helps track project performance and identify where the schedule has changed.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A commitment is a financial obligation, not a copy of the project's schedule.
- C. An accrual records cost incurred but not yet paid, not a snapshot of project tasks.
- D. A forecast is a projection of future cost or effort, not a saved copy of the current schedule.
Question 43
Actuals on a resource plan are updated by what activity?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Time card is approved.
Actual hours on a resource plan are updated from time cards once those time cards are approved. Approval confirms the reported effort, and the approved hours are then recorded as actuals against the associated resource plan, so the plan shows planned versus actual effort and cost. Time that has been entered but not yet approved does not update the plan.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Submitting a time card only sends it for approval and does not yet update resource plan actuals.
- B. Project managers do not enter actuals manually on resource plans; they come from approved time cards.
- C. Approving a resource plan confirms the requested resources and creates allocations, not actuals.
Question 44
Demand assessments are triggered as soon as the demand enters what state?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Screening.
Demand assessments are sent automatically as soon as the demand moves to the Screening state. At that point the stakeholders marked as assessment recipients receive assessments based on the configured metric types, and their responses are scored to produce values such as risk, value and strategic alignment. Those scores then help the demand manager decide whether to qualify and approve the demand.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. A Submitted demand is still awaiting review, and assessments have not yet been triggered.
- B. Qualified comes after screening, once the assessment results have been reviewed.
- C. Approved is a later decision state that relies on the assessment results already gathered during screening.
Question 45
Idea [im_idea_core] is directly extended from which table?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Task
The Idea [im_idea_core] table is the default table that stores the information captured through Idea Management and the Idea portal, and it extends the Task table. As a Task extension, every idea inherits standard task fields such as Number, State, Assigned to and Short description, along with task behavior like approvals, activity history and SLAs, which keeps ideas consistent with demands and projects.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Project [pm_project] is itself an extension of Task and is not the parent of the Idea table.
- B. Idea Modules is not a base table that other tables extend.
- D. The Idea table does extend a parent table, Task, from which it inherits its core fields.
Question 46
What role can configure the default columns in the project planning console? (Choose two.)
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A, B. admin; it_pps_admin
The default columns in the project planning console apply to every user of the console, so configuring them is an administrative task. Users with the admin role or the it_pps_admin role can set which columns appear by default. The admin role has full control of the instance, while it_pps_admin is the project and portfolio suite administrator responsible for configuring the planning tools used by project managers.
Why the other options are wrong
- C. it_project_manager uses the planning console but cannot configure its default columns for all users.
- D. it_console_admin is not a role that configures the default columns of the planning console.
That was 46 of 182.
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